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Sample Test

 Chapter 03

Exam
Name___________________________________
TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
1) If a patient does not pay his bill, and he is wearing a temporary crown, the dentist does not have to
give him his permanent crown.
1)
2) The terms “what should I do” and “what must I do” are synonymous. 2)
3) Once a dentist has earned her degree and passed the licensing exam in the state where she lives, the
license will be good for all 50 states in the U.S.
3)
4) The term “general supervision” allows the dental assistant to perform some tasks while the dentist
is not present in the room.
4)
5) Civil law is for non-criminal action suits that allow for compensation for pain and suffering. 5)
6) Express contracts are verbal or written words that are agreed upon in an established contract. 6)
7) Using an expired carpule of anesthetic could be called negligent. 7)
8) Defect, duty, direct cause, and damage are considered the “four Ds” of malpractice. 8)
9) If, while performing a root canal, the dentist breaks a file in the canal, leaves it there, and informs
the patient, the dentist has committed res ipsa loquitur.
9)
10) Informed consent gives the patient all the information relevant to the procedure to assist her in
making the correct choice of treatment.
10)
11) If a patient does not want to have x-rays taken at his recall appointment, he may sign an informed
consent that allows the dentist to continue to treat him without harm.
11)
12) A dentist may stop treating a patient at any time, without reservation. 12)
13) A patient’s health record information is protected by HIPAA laws. 13)
14) Per HIPAA law, keeping red stickers with notations such as ‘AIDS’ and ‘Hep A’ on the outside of a
patient’s chart is acceptable.
14)
15) Dental assistants should be aware of the laws regarding their duties for the state in which they
practice.
15)
1
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16) What is the term for withdrawing from patient care without reasonable notice or a referral for
completion of dental treatment?
A) Criminal law B) Civil law
C) Abandonment D) Dental Practice Act
16)
17) What is the non-criminal legal action that deals with the relationships of individuals against a
dentist that can result in a composition lawsuit?
A) Civil law B) Criminal law
C) Abandonment D) Dental Practice Act
17)
18) What involves state or federal government intervention against individuals who perform non-legal
procedures or violations, resulting in disciplinary action?
A) Civil law B) Criminal law
C) Abandonment D) Dental Practice Act
18)
19) What is the term for the governing laws in the science of dentistry?
A) Dental care B) Dental Practice Act
C) Dental jurisprudence D) Abandonment
19)
20) What are legal restrictions set forth by each state legislative body describing the statutes regarding
performance guidelines of licensed and non-licensed members of practicing dental personnel
called?
A) Dental care B) Dental Practice Act
C) Dental jurisprudence D) Dentition
20)
21) What is the term for actions that any reasonable or prudent dental care professional would take
under similar circumstances?
A) Due care B) Dental Practice Act
C) Dental jurisprudence D) Criminal law
21)
22) What is the term for advanced tasks that require increased skill and training performed by dental
auxiliary when delegated by a dentist in accordance with their state dental practice act?
A) Implied contract B) Express contact
C) Expanded functions D) Criminal law
22)
23) What are verbal or written words that are agreed upon in an established contract called?
A) Implied contract B) Express contract
C) Expanded functions D) Dental Act
23)
24) What is a contract that is implemented by the patient’s actions, rather than verbally or in writing?
A) Dental contract B) Express contract
C) Implied contract D) Indicated contract
24)
25) What is the term for incorrect or negligent treatment by a professional?
A) Negligence B) Reciprocity
C) Malpractice D) Express contract
25)
2
26) What is the failure to use standard of care that a reasonable person would apply under similar
situations?
A) Negligence B) Malpractice
C) Reciprocity D) Express contract
26)
27) What allows an individual to obtain licensure, with the same rights, from one state to another
without having to retest?
A) Reciprocity B) Res geste
C) Res ipsa loquitur D) Respondeat superior
27)
28) Under what concept can statements made at a time of an alleged negligent act be admissible in a
court as evidence?
A) Res ipsa loquitur B) Res geste
C) Reciprocity D) Respondeat superior
28)
29) What is the term for “the act speaks for itself”?
A) Respondeat superior B) Res geste
C) Reciprocity D) Res ipsa loquitur
29)
30) What is the term for “the master answers”?
A) Res ipsa loquitur B) Res geste
C) Respondeat superior D) Reciprocity
30)
31) The act of an intention or unintentional wrong doing is called:
A) Tort law. B) Due care.
C) Dental Practice Act. D) Malpractice.
31)
32) Ethics deals with what four principles in dentistry?
A) Moral judgments, behaviors, wrong vs. right, and good vs. evil
B) Right vs. wrong, good vs. evil, beneficence, and justice
C) Good vs. evil, moral judgments, behaviors, and justice
D) Moral judgments, behaviors, autonomy, and beneficence
32)
33) Basic principles used in the health care profession by providers in helping to recognize, explain,
and rationalize moral and ethical choices include:
A) Non-malfeasance, veracity and justice.
B) Autonomy, veracity, and justice.
C) Veracity, beneficence, non-malfeasance, autonomy, and justice.
D) Non-malfeasance, justice, and autonomy.
33)
34) Which term means “self-governance”?
A) Autonomy B) Justice C) A and B D) Maleficence
34)
35) Which term means “do no harm”?
A) Justice B) Veracity
C) Non-malfeasance D) Autonomy
35)
36) Which term means “do good”?
A) Veracity B) Justice C) Beneficence D) Autonomy
36)
3
37) Which term means “fairness”?
A) Veracity B) Justice C) Autonomy D) Beneficence
37)
38) Which term means ‘truthfulness”?
A) Justice B) Veracity C) Autonomy D) Beneficence
38)
39) The dental team has the duty to refrain from:
A) Protecting the patient. B) Harming the patient.
C) Knowing the patient. D) All of the above.
39)
40) The State Board of Dentistry is an administrative board responsible:
A) For supervising, enforcing, and adhering to the Dental Practice Act.
B) Only for enforcing the Dental Practice Act.
C) Only for adhering the Dental Practice Act.
D) Only for supervising the Dental Practice Act.
40)
41) The board of dental examiners usually consists of:
A) Only dentists.
B) Public consumers and dentists.
C) Dental auxiliaries, public consumers, and dentists.
D) Only public consumers.
41)
42) Dental laws point out the minimum standard of behavior that a dental assistant must:
A) Memorize. B) Do. C) Be aware of. D) Not do.
42)
43) Dental ethics refers to the highest standard of care that a dental assistant should:
A) Expect from the dentist. B) Follow always.
C) Try to maintain. D) Follow if necessary.
43)
44) Dental jurisprudence is written by the:
A) State Dental Board. B) HIPAA.
C) American Medical Association. D) OSHA.
44)
45) Dental malpractice and negligence can occur due to a variety of circumstances, including:
A) Personal injury to an oral cavity, and wrongful death.
B) Wrongful death due to dental procedures, and personal injury.
C) Failure to properly detect an oral disease, wrongful death, and personal injury.
D) Failure to properly detect an oral disease.
45)
46) An example of malpractice is when the dentist:
A) Performs unnecessary procedures on a patient.
B) Does everything to make the patient comfortable.
C) Performs necessary procedures on a patient.
D) Processes accurate insurance claims.
46)
47) Malpractice occurs when four elements of malpractice are present. Elements include:
A) Direct cause; derelict B) Derelict; damage
C) Duty; damage; and direct cause D) Direct cause; damage
47)
4
48) An act of omission occurs when a reasonable person ________ do something that a similarly trained
individual would do under the same circumstances.
A) does not B) will not C) cannot D) must not
48)
49) A classic example of res ipsa loquitur would be when:
A) The dentist gives the patient a pain reliever.
B) A root canal file breaks, and is left inside the root.
C) The dentist performs a root canal with no damage.
D) A root canal file breaks, and is taken out of the mouth.
49)
50) It is generally accepted that complete informed consent includes a discussion of:
A) The nature of the diagnosis, reasonable options, and the cost of healing.
B) Reasonable options and the cost of healing.
C) The cost and healing time of proposed treatment, nature of diagnosis, and reasonable options.
D) Diagnosis and options.
50)
51) Written informed consent is mandatory in a variety of circumstances, including:
A) When a new drug is used.
B) When treatment requires more than three visits.
C) When treatment requires more than six months.
D) If the dentist uses a different material for treatment.
51)
52) When referring a patient, proper documentation placed in the patient’s file is important, and
should include:
A) Reason for referral and name of the specialist.
B) Name of the specialist being referred and description of the problem.
C) Description of the problem requiring referral, name of the specialist being referred, and the
reason for referral.
D) Description of the problem.
52)
53) A patient’s health information is protected through the:
A) CDC. B) HIPAA. C) OSHA. D) APA.
53)
54) PHI stands for:
A) Private Health Insurance. B) Protected Health Information.
C) Private Health Information. D) Protected Health Insurance.
54)
55) HIPAA was enacted in:
A) 1997. B) 1995. C) 1996. D) 1998.
55)
56) Federal HIPAA privacy requirements consist of what three categories?
A) Privacy standards, patients’ rights, and consent
B) Patients’ rights, privacy standards, and administrative knowledge
C) Administrative requirements, privacy standards, and consent
D) Patients’ rights, privacy standards, and administrative requirements
56)
57) As of what date does HIPAA require dental offices to provide a copy of the HIPAA privacy
standard to each patient on his first visit to the practice?
A) April 14, 2003 B) April 15, 2003 C) April 16, 2003 D) April 17, 2003
57)
5
58) Under HIPAA, the policy states that patients have rights over their own PHI. These rights include
the right to:
A) Amend PHI in their records.
B) Access and obtain digital photos of their PHI.
C) Access and obtain copies of their records.
D) Take the original PHI and leave a copy.
58)
59) The Health and Human Services Office of Civil Rights can levy fines up to:
A) $40,000 and 20 years’ imprisonment. B) $300,000 and 15 years’ imprisonment.
C) $250,000 and 10 years’ imprisonment. D) $500,000 and 5 years’ imprisonment.
59)
60) Dentists cannot terminate contracts with patients without:
A) 10 days’ notice. B) 30 days’ notice.
C) Reasonable notice. D) 5 days’ notice.
60)
61) If a dentist has treated a patient and then wants to terminate the patient, the termination must be
done in writing, and usually a ________-day notice is given to the patient.
A) 60 B) 45 C) 20 D) 30
61)
62) The patient record is a ________ document.
A) Written B) Legal C) Safe D) Typed
62)
63) Due to HIPAA, the patient has the right to ________ copies of her patient chart.
A) Hold B) Request C) Review D) Destroy
63)
64) Information in the patient record or file includes:
A) Exam records and radiographs.
B) Radiographs only.
C) Diagnostic and exam records only.
D) Exam records, radiographs, and diagnostic.
64)
65) If an error is entered in a manual record, the error should be corrected by:
A) Placing an X over the error and initialing.
B) Drawing a single line through the error and initialing.
C) Using Wite-Out on the error and initialing.
D) Scratching out the error and initialing.
65)
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Match the following ethical principles in dentistry with the definitions.
A. Autonomy
B. Non-maleficence
C. Beneficence
D. Justice
E. Veracity
66) Involving patients in treatment decisions in a meaningful way, with due consideration
being given to the patient’s needs, desires, and abilities, and safeguarding the patient’s
privacy
66)
6
67) Respecting the position of trust inherent in the dentist-patient relationship,
communicating truthfully and without deception, and maintaining intellectual integrity
67)
68) Dealing with people justly, and delivering dental care without prejudice 68)
69) Keeping knowledge and skills current; knowing one’s own limitations, and when to refer
to a specialist or other professional; and knowing when and under what circumstances
delegation of patient care to auxiliaries is appropriate by the Dental Practice Act of one’s
specific state
69)
70) Service to the patient and the public at large 70)
Match the terms with their definitions.
A. Reciprocity
B. Respondeat superior
C. Civil law
D. Criminal law
E. Tort law
71) An act that has caused harm to another person, which might be intentional or
unintentional wrongdoing.
71)
72) Involves state or federal government intervention against individuals who perform illegal
procedures or violations, resulting in disciplinary action, fines and/or felony.
72)
73) The employer is responsible for all employee actions. 73)
74) Allows an individual to obtain licensure, with the same rights, from one state to another
without having to retest.
74)
75) Non-criminal legal action that can occur between a patient and a dentist when the patient
seeks compensation for pain, suffering, and loss of wages caused by a dental procedure
that is in question
75)
76) ________ is the governing laws that deal with ethical and legal principles for the dental
health care team.
76)
77) The ________ specifies legal restrictions by each state legislative body, describing
performance guidelines of licensed and non-licensed members of practicing dental
personnel.
77)
78) ________ are moral judgments and behaviors, which are standards of conduct learned
through one’s own personal values, education, and religion, and others’ behaviors.
78)
79) ________ consists of dentists, public consumers, and dental auxiliaries appointed by the
governor of the state to be responsible for implementation of rules and regulations of the
state Dental Practice Act.
79)
80) ________ is a system allowing individuals in one state to obtain a license in another state
without retesting.
80)
7
81) What type of supervision requires the dentist to remain in the office while procedures are
being performed, with work examined after completion? ________
81)
82) The Latin term for “let the master answer” is ________, meaning the dentist is responsible
for the actions of all employees.
82)
83) ________ is non-criminal law that occurs when legal charges are litigated between the
patient and the dentist.
83)
84) A contract that may be either written or verbal is called an ________. 84)
85) ________, known as professional negligence, consists of four components: duty, derelict,
direct cause, and damage.
85)
86) Managing the risk of lawsuits within the dental practice is referred to as ________. 86)
87) ________ is an explanation to the patient about his diagnosis, proposed treatment, and
reasonable outcome of all dental procedures.
87)
88) ________ provides protection and ensures the integrity and confidentiality of patient health
information.
88)
89) ________ is the failure or professional negligence of the dentist to provide a referral for
completion of dental treatment with reasonable notice.
89)
90) Reasonable or prudent care provided under similar circumstances is referred to as
________.
90)
91) What are the five ways that ethical principles are learned? 91)
92) Why is it important to have ethical principles in dealing with patient care? 92)
93) How does autonomy affect patient treatment? 93)
94) How does veracity affect dental practice advertising? 94)
95) What organization defines the written codes of ethics for the dental assistant? 95)
96) What is the difference between ethics and jurisprudence? 96)
97) What are the four elements of malpractice? 97)
98) Define informed consent. 98)
99) What information is included in the patient record or file? 99)
8
100) What information is NOT included in the patient record or file? 100)
9
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED3
1) FALSE
2) FALSE
3) FALSE
4) FALSE
5) TRUE
6) TRUE
7) TRUE
8) FALSE
9) FALSE
10) TRUE
11) FALSE
12) FALSE
13) TRUE
14) FALSE
15) TRUE
16) C
17) A
18) B
19) C
20) B
21) A
22) C
23) B
24) C
25) C
26) A
27) A
28) B
29) D
30) C
31) A
32) A
33) C
34) A
35) C
36) C
37) B
38) B
39) B
40) A
41) C
42) B
43) B
44) A
45) C
46) A
47) C
48) A
49) B
50) C
10
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED3