Physical Anthropology 12th Edition by Philip Stein- Test Bank

 

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Sample Test

Chapter 03

The Modern Study of Human Genetics

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1.   A single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) refers to:
A.an error in the genetic code involving the replacement of multiple proteins by a single protein
B. the presence of only a single allele of a gene
C. an error in the genetic code involving a single change of a nucleotide at a particular point
D. the presence of a dominant allele and a recessive allele of a single gene

 

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2.   How many major alleles does the ABO blood-type system have?
A.one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. more than four

 

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3.   The hemoglobin molecule is composed of four chains of amino acids: two alpha chains and two beta chains. The start of the code of the beta chain is GTGCACCTGACTCCTGAG. This codes for the first six amino acids of this chain: valine-histidine-leucine-threonine-proline-glutamic acid. If a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) occurs in the code for glutamic acid, which of the following will be a consequence of the SNP?
A.it will result in a different amino acid replacing glutamic acid
B. it will result in glutamic acid replacing all six amino acids at the start of the beta chain
C. it will result in the amino acids present after glutamic acid in the beta chain being replaced by different amino acids
D. it will result in glutamic acid replacing all amino acids in the beta chain

 

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4.   Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited:
A.skeletal abnormality
B. blood disorder
C. metabolic abnormality
D. psychiatric disorder

 

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5.   Ashkenazi Jews:
A.are the only population to carry the allele for Tay-Sachs disease
B. have a high carrier rate for Tay-Sachs disease
C. have the lowest carrier rate for Tay-Sachs disease
D. may have a high carrier rate for Tay-Sachs disease but also possess a regulator gene that prevents the disease from expressing itself

 

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6.   Achondroplastic dwarfism in humans is inherited as:
A.a result of a dominant allele
B. a lethal recessive
C. an X-linked trait
D. a recessive

 

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7.   Which of the following is a late-onset genetic disease characterized by the loss of motor control associated with jerky movements and psychiatric symptoms?
A.Klinefelter syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Tay-Sachs disease
D. Huntington’s disease

 

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8.   Which of the following is true of Huntington’s disease?
A.it is a result of excessive GGG repeats
B. it is a result of excessive CAG repeats
C. it is inherited in a codominant pattern
D. it is inherited in a recessive pattern

 

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9.   A Punnett square is a grid used in genetics to:
A.show the genotypes and their probabilities of a particular gene in a mating
B. show the probability of occurrence of the actual phenotypes for a particular gene
C. calculate the frequency of a genetic abnormality in a population
D. calculate the frequency of a particular phenotype in a population

 

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10.                A child is diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease. Both the father and mother are carriers (heterozygous for the disorder). Using the Punnett square, it can be estimated that the probability of them having a phenotypically normal child is:
A.1/4
B. 2/4
C. 3/4
D. 4/4

 

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11.                A couple has a child who is diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease. Both the father and mother are carriers (heterozygous for the disorder). Using the Punnett square, it can be estimated that the probability of them having a child with Tay-Sachs disease is:
A.1/4
B. 2/4
C. 3/4
D. 4/4

 

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12.                Deviations from Mendelian genetics include:
A.polygenic inheritance
B. multiple-allele series
C. pleiotropy
D. all of these

 

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13.                Which of the following genetic abnormalities shows the symptoms of excessive mucus production, digestive and respiratory failure, and reduced life expectancy?
A.achondroplastic dwarfism
B. beta-thalassemia
C. cystic fibrosis
D. Tay-Sachs disease

 

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14.                In the context of deviations from Mendelian genetics, polygenic inheritance refers to:
A.a specific trait being influenced by more than one gene
B. both alleles being expressed in a heterozygous genotype
C. three or more alleles existing for a specific gene
D. a gene altering the expression of another gene

 

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15.                In the context of deviations from Mendelian genetics, codominance refers to:
A.the influence of nongenetic factors on a phenotype
B. both alleles being expressed in a heterozygous genotype
C. three or more alleles existing for a specific gene
D. a gene altering the expression of another gene

 

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16.                In the context of deviations from Mendelian genetics, incomplete penetrance refers to:
A.the influence of nongenetic factors on a phenotype
B. the situation in which an allele that might be expected to be expressed is not
C. a single allele affecting an entire series of traits
D. a gene altering the expression of another gene

 

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17.                Oncogenes refer to genes with alleles that:
A.contribute to the development of cancers
B. prevent the expression of cancer-causing genes
C. are unaffected by mutation
D. behave as dominant alleles

 

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18.                A sex-limited gene is:
A.one that is carried on the Y chromosome
B. one that is carried on the X chromosome
C. one that is carried on either the X or Y chromosome
D. expressed in only one of the sexes

 

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19.                The Y chromosome:
A.carries the gene that establishes the sex of the individual
B. carries very few genes
C. is found only in genetic males
D. all of these

 

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20.                Ways of determining the sex of an individual include:
A.phenotypic sex
B. chromosomal sex
C. genetic sex
D. all of these

 

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21.                Which of the following statements is not true?
A.unless certain chemicals are released at a certain time, a human embryo will be female
B. a person with two X chromosomes is always phenotypically female
C. an XY individual can be phenotypically female
D. phenotypic, chromosomal, and genetic sex do not always agree

 

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22.                The gene that determines male sex is known as:
A.SRY
B. Andro
C. Bly
D. Gen

 

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23.                Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A.a feature, such as stature, may be the result of the action of several genes
B. genes may be expressed differently in males and females
C. genes always exist in two forms of alleles
D. it is possible to have inherited a particular allele that is not expressed in the phenotype

 

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24.                A Y-linked trait is passed down from a father to:
A.all of his sons but none of his daughters
B. none of his sons but all of his daughters
C. half of his sons but none of his daughters
D. all of his sons and half of his daughters

 

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25.                Hemophilia is due to the presence of an allele on:
A.the X chromosome
B. the Y chromosome
C. an autosome
D. none of these

 

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26.                Chromosomal abnormalities:
A.never occur
B. occur only when there is an abnormal number of chromosomes
C. may be the result of breaks in the chromosome
D. are not a significant source of miscarriages

 

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27.                Structural aberrations of chromosomes include:
A.deletion
B. duplication
C. inversion
D. all of these

 

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28.                A common error in meiosis at the chromosomal level is:
A.nondisjunction
B. deletion
C. inversion
D. duplication

 

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29.                Which of the following statements is true about trisomy?
A.it is a result of nondisjunction
B. it is characterized by the presence of three chromosomes instead of a pair
C. Down syndrome is an example of trisomy
D. all of these

 

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30.                Male phenotype, sterility, small penis, breast enlargement in 40 percent of the cases, and average IQ scores characterize individuals with a sex-chromosome count of:
A.XXY
B. XYY
C. XXX
D. X

 

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31.                A person with Klinefelter syndrome:
A.is phenotypically male
B. is sterile
C. has a small penis
D. all of these

 

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32.                Persons with Turner syndrome:
A.are phenotypically male
B. have a shield-shaped chest
C. are taller than average
D. all of these

 

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33.                XXX individuals are said to have:
A.Patau syndrome
B. Edward syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. none of these

 

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34.                An individual with an XXY chromosome combination is said to have:
A.Jacob syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Edward syndrome
D. Patau syndrome

 

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35.                Which of the following is true about individuals with XXX chromosome combination?
A.they are taller than average
B. they are short in stature
C. they are phenotypically female
D. they are phenotypically male

 

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36.                A person:
A.with one X and one Y chromosome could be phenotypically female
B. with two X chromosomes could be phenotypically male under certain conditions
C. with two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome is phenotypically male
D. all of these

 

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37.                Which of the following refers to the process whereby segments of chromosomes become detached and then reattach to other nonhomologous chromosomes?
A.deletion
B. translocation
C. inversion
D. duplication

 

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38.                GINA is:
A.an acronym for the phrase Genes In a Normal Adult
B. an acronym for the phrase Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act
C. the name of a girl after which an act of Congress was named
D. a nickname for the Human Genome Project

 

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39.                GINA:
A.protects Americans against discrimination based on genetic information
B. allows insurance companies to exclude people from coverage if they carry certain alleles
C. allows insurance companies to raise premiums on people who carry certain alleles
D. allows employers to refuse to hire a person who has a higher probability of expressing a genetic disease than the average person in the population.

 

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40.                An abnormal fetus can sometimes be detected by means of:
A.blood typing
B. pedigree analysis
C. amniocentesis
D. dermatoglyphics

 

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41.                Amniocentesis is a technique for determining:
A.if a fetus has one of many chromosomal and genetic defects
B. if the parents of a fetus are carriers
C. the blood type of a fetus
D. all of these

 

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42.                Which of the following is true of chorionic villus sampling?
A.it is a method for discovering genetic defects in a mother through the sampling of amniotic fluid
B. it consists of a sample composed of placental tissue, which is derived from the embryo
C. it involves analyzing a cell that has been removed from an early embryonic state in the laboratory
D. it is usually performed between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation

 

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43.                Which of the following is true about cell-free fetal DNA?
A.it refers to small pieces of maternal DNA detected after 10 weeks of gestation
B. it can be detected in the blood only after 25-27 weeks of gestation
C. it refers to small fragments of fetal DNA that cannot be distinguished from the mother’s DNA in the blood
D. it originates from the placenta

 

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44.                Preimplantation genetic diagnosis refers to the method for determining the presence of genetic disorders in an embryo by:
A.viewing and analyzing the radiographic images of the fetus
B. analyzing blood samples taken from the mother
C. analyzing a cell that has been removed from an early embryonic state in the laboratory
D. removing the ovum from the mother and then analyzing it for genetic disorders in the laboratory

 

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45.                Which of the following is true about assisted reproductive technology?
A.the ova from the mother are removed and fertilized by sperm in vivo
B. the ova from the mother are removed and fertilized by sperm in the laboratory
C. amniotic fluid from the womb is removed and fertilized by sperm in the laboratory
D. cell-free fetal DNA is taken and fertilized by sperm in the laboratory

 

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46.                The DNA in a body cell contains about _____ base pairs.
A.10 billion
B. 6 billion
C. 8 million
D. 1 trillion

 

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47.                Which of the following statements is not true about the Human Genome Project?
A.the project is an attempt to determine the base pair sequence for all human genes
B. a complete human genome map would lead to improved diagnosis and treatment of genetic diseases
C. there is some concern that the project is not taking into account human diversity
D. the project will not be completed for another 50 years

 

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48.                The first director of the Human Genome Project was:
A.Luca Cavalli-Sforza
B. Peter Grant
C. James Watson
D. Francis Crick

 

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49.                A new discipline dedicated to the analysis of genetic information and the practical use of that information is:
A.bioinformatics
B. bioethics
C. genomology
D. genome analysis

 

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50.                A segment of DNA that codes for a polypeptide that has a phenotypic expression is referred to as:
A.structural gene
B. regulator gene
C. activator gene
D. repressor gene

 

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51.                Proteins within a cell that prevent the expression of a gene are referred to as:
A.structural proteins
B. regulator proteins
C. activator proteins
D. repressor proteins

 

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52.                Regulatory genes:
A.initiate or block the activity of other genes
B. were originally thought by Mendel to be responsible for violet-colored flowers in the pea plant
C. “cut” DNA at specific sites
D. all of these

 

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53.                The regulation of the expression of a gene:
A.is strictly a matter of genetic control
B. is strictly a matter of environmental control
C. always involves both genetic and environmental controls
D. might be genetic or environmental

 

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54.                Which of the following is true about non-coding RNA?
A.it is a type of messenger RNA
B. it is a type of transfer RNA
C. it is not involved in protein synthesis
D. it is not involved in the regulation of genes

 

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55.                Activator proteins are protein molecules within the cell that:
A.bring about the expression of a gene
B. bring about the duplication of a gene
C. prevent the expression of a gene
D. control the expression of RNA

 

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56.                A fertilized ovum is referred to as a:
A.spermatid
B. clone
C. gonad
D. zygote

 

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57.                There are processes that turn some genes off (silence them) and turn other genes on without actually changing the nucleotide sequence of each gene. These are called ______ processes.
A.supragenetic
B. supergenetic
C. epigenetic
D. novagenetic

 

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58.                Cloning is the process of producing ____________ that have the same genetic constitution.
A.genes
B. cells
C. whole organisms
D. all of these

 

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59.                Which of the following statements about cloning is not true?
A.whole organisms can be cloned
B. clones are exact duplicates of the donor
C. the first mammal has already been cloned
D. cloning can be used to insert human genes into nonhuman animals

 

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60.                Undifferentiated cells with the potential to become many types of adult specialized cells are called:
A.hemocytes
B. nerve cells
C. stem cells
D. lymphocytes

 

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61.                A gene that is made in a laboratory and used in place of a defective or undesirable gene is called a(n):
A.homeobox gene
B. oncogene
C. parasitic gene
D. artificial gene

 

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62.                Matthew is a researcher who corrects genetic defects in individuals by replacing the DNA sequence responsible for the defect with the correct DNA sequence. In this scenario, Matthew most likely is involved in:
A.gene therapy
B. genetic concordance
C. genetic reductionism
D. gene polymorphism

 

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63.                Which of the following statements best defines eugenics?
A.it is the study of the three-dimensional structure of all proteins encoded by a given genome
B. it is the study of the evolutionary relationships among groups of organisms
C. it is the study of the methods that can improve the inherited qualities of a species
D. it is the study of the processes that control gene expression without changing the genetic code

 

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64.                A difference between positive and negative eugenics is that negative eugenics:
A.allows for the regulation of gene expression without changing the genetic code
B. allows for the cloning of cells to form tissues or organs for medical procedures
C. is used to eliminate deleterious alleles from the gene pool by encouraging persons with such alleles not to reproduce
D. is used to increase the frequency of desirable traits by encouraging genetic modification of fetuses

 

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65.                The Council on Ethical and Judicial Affairs of the American Medical Association concluded that genetic manipulation for purposes other than the prevention, cure, or treatment of genetic disorders may be permissible if:
A.there would be a clear and meaningful benefit to the child whose genes would be modified
B. the genetic technology could control human matings to produce desirable traits
C. trade-offs could be made with other characteristics or traits to improve the human genome
D. citizens with low intelligence were given priority to access the genetic technology over citizens with high intelligence

 

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66.                In the medical arena, the goal of genetic engineering is to:
A.enable parents to modify their offspring in terms of eye color and hair
B. enhance the performance of athletes
C. produce desirable traits in feeble-minded humans
D. treat genetic defects

 

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67.                The altering of the genetic material to create specific characteristics in individuals is referred to as:
A.genetic reductionism
B. genetic engineering
C. genetic concordance
D. genetic divergence

 

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68.                Individuals with an abnormal number of sex chromosomes:
A.rarely survive to adulthood
B. are always phenotypically female
C. often show abnormal sex organs and are sterile
D. all of these

 

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69.                A person is phenotypically male only if that individual has:
A.an XY chromosome combination
B. one X chromosome
C. Y chromosomes that are more than or equal in number to X chromosomes
D. at least one Y chromosome

 

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True / False Questions

70.                Proteins whose primary function is to destroy or neutralize foreign substances are called enzymes.
FALSE

 

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71.                When the defects caused by mutation of genes are fully penetrant, they will follow the classical Mendelian pattern of inheritance.
TRUE

 

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72.                Complete penetrance is characteristic of oncogenes.
FALSE

 

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73.                Genes always exist in two forms of alleles.
FALSE

 

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74.                The feature of the genetic code where a short sequence is repeated many times is actually fairly common in the genome.
TRUE

 

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75.                A Y-linked trait is passed down from a father to half of his sons but none of his daughters.
FALSE

 

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76.                Hemophilia is an X-linked trait. If a woman who is a carrier marries a normal man, the proportion of their male offspring that would be expected to have hemophilia is half.
TRUE

 

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77.                Down syndrome is caused by an extra X chromosome.
FALSE

 

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78.                A person with XY chromosomes could be phenotypically female under certain conditions.
TRUE

 

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79.                Some of the non-coding DNA has regulatory functions.
TRUE

 

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80.                Except for the possible epigenetic factors, clones are exact duplicates of the donor.
TRUE

 

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81.                Amniocentesis is a technique for determining if the parents of a fetus are carriers of a genetic disease.
FALSE

 

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Matching Questions

82.                Match each error of cell division with its definition:

1. inversion	a chromosome pair fails to separate	3
2. duplication	section of a chromosome is lost because of breakage	4
3. nondisjunction	section of a chromosome breaks and is reunited in a reverse order	1
4. deletion	section of a chromosome is repeated	2

 

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83.                Match each term with its definition:

1. Down syndrome	individual has two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome	3
2. Turner syndrome	individual has only a single X chromosome and no Y chromosome	2
3. Klinefelter syndrome	individual has an extra copy of chromosome 21	1

 

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Essay Questions

84.                Match each sex-chromosome count with the correct phenotypic sex:

A. male
B. female

1. XXY
2. XYY
3. XXX
4. X-

85.                A, 2. A, 3. B, 4. B.

 

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85.                Over the years it has become apparent that, although the basic principles of genetics uncovered by Gregor Mendel hold true in simple situations, the inheritance patterns of many traits in many organisms appear to deviate from what would be predicted by simple Mendelian genetics. What are some of the explanations for these apparent deviations?

Answers will vary.

 

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86.                What are some of the common errors in cell division and chromosome replication? How do these errors impact the individual?

Answers will vary.

 

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87.                The inheritance of some traits, such as hemophilia, does not follow the classic Mendelian rules. Why?

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88.                What are the functions of a genetic counselor?

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89.                What is the Human Genome Project? What are some of the controversies surrounding it?

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90.                What are the benefits and possible negative implications of human cloning?

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91.                What is epigenetics? How might knowledge of epigenetics change our understanding of inheritance?

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92.                What is the 1000 Genome Project? What do you think might ultimately be the significance of this to human affairs, including medicine?

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93.                Explain the process of therapeutic cloning, and describe its advantages over whole organ or tissue transplant.

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94.                What are some examples of chromosomal abnormalities? What causes these abnormalities?

Answers will vary.

 

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95.                The inheritance of some traits, such as hemophilia, do not follow the classic Mendelian rules. Why?

Answers will vary.