Perinatal And Pediatric Respiratory Care 3rd Edition by Brian K. Walsh – Test Bank
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Sample Test
Walsh: Perinatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care, 3rd Edition
Chapter 3: Antenatal Assessment and High-Risk Delivery
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which
of the following events or conditions is the most important risk factor for
preterm birth?
|
A. |
Cervical insufficiency |
|
B. |
Preterm premature rupture
of the fetal membranes |
|
C. |
Obstetrical intervention
mandated by fetal jeopardy |
|
D. |
Prior preterm delivery |
ANS: D
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
D. |
Correct response: Preterm
birth, that is, birth before 37 weeks of gestation, is the greatest cause of
neonatal morbidity and mortality. Preterm birth can be the consequence of
preterm labor, preterm premature rupture of fetal membranes, or obstetrical
intervention mandated by fetal jeopardy, or maternal clinical status. Prior
preterm delivery is one of the most important risk factors for subsequent
preterm labor. With one prior preterm labor, a woman carries a 15% risk of
subsequent preterm delivery. This risk increases to 32% with a history of two
previous preterm births. |
OBJ: Recall
2. What
is generally accepted as a safe limit for alcohol consumption during pregnancy
to avoid the development of fetal alcohol syndrome?
|
A. |
One to two 8-ounce drinks
per day are considered acceptable. |
|
B. |
Four to five 8-ounce drinks
per week are considered safe. |
|
C. |
Three to four 12-ounce
drinks per week are considered reasonable. |
|
D. |
No safe range of alcohol consumption is deemed safe during
pregnancy. |
ANS: D
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See explanation
D. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
D. |
Correct response: Alcohol
is a potent teratogen,
an agent or factor that causes malformation in the fetus. Fetal alcohol syndrome, associated
with maternal use of alcohol in pregnancy, is characterized by mental
retardation and prenatal and postnatal growth restriction, as well as by
brain, cardiac, spinal, and craniofacial anomalies. It is usually seen among
children of women who consume four to six alcoholic drinks daily throughout
pregnancy. However, no safe range of drinking alcohol during pregnancy
exists. |
OBJ: Recall
3. What
is the average birth weight difference between infants born of mothers who
smoke and those born of nonsmoking mothers?
|
A. |
Infants born of mothers who
smoke tend to be about 200 g lighter than infants born of mothers who do not
smoke. |
|
B. |
Infants born of mothers who
smoke are generally about 400 g lighter than infants born of nonsmoking
mothers. |
|
C. |
Infants born of mothers who
smoke are predisposed to weigh approximately 600 g less than infants born of
mothers who do not smoke. |
|
D. |
Infants of mothers who
smoke are likely to be born about 800 g lighter than those born of mothers
who do not smoke. |
ANS: A
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Correct response: Infants
born of mothers who smoke cigarettes during pregnancy tend to weigh
approximately 200 g less than those born of mothers who do not smoke. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation A. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See explanation
A. |
|
D. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation A. |
OBJ: Recall
4. Which
of the following conditions are associated with preeclampsia?
5. Multiparity
6. Proteinuria
III. Generalized edema
1. Hypertension
|
A. |
II and III only |
|
B. |
I, II, and III only |
|
C. |
I, III, and IV only |
|
D. |
II, III, and IV only |
ANS: D
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
D. |
Correct response: Preeclampsia is
traditionally described as a triad of hypertension, proteinuria, and
generalized edema. It is commonly cited that preeclampsia complicates
approximately 5% to 8% of pregnancies. Predisposing factors include the
following: • Nulliparity • Advanced maternal age • Chronic hypertension • Chronic renal disease • Diabetes mellitus • Twin gestation • Molar pregnancy • Hydrops fetalis |
OBJ: Recall
5. Which
of the following maternal and/or fetal conditions are associated with
pregestational diabetes?
6. Hydrops
fetalis
7. Ketoacidosis
III. Preeclampsia
1. Fetal
death
|
A. |
I and II only |
|
B. |
II and III only |
|
C. |
I, III, and IV only |
|
D. |
II, III, and IV only |
ANS: D
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See explanation
D. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
D. |
Correct response: Women
with pregestational diabetes are at increased risk for adverse maternal and
fetal outcomes. Adverse maternal outcomes include increased risk of
developing diabetic ketoacidosis, proliferative retinopathy, and
preeclampsia/eclampsia. Adverse fetal outcomes include unexplained fetal
death in the third trimester of pregnancy and major fetal structural
malformations. |
OBJ: Recall
6. Which
of the following drugs is recommended to treat a group B Streptococcus infection
for a patient who is allergic to penicillin?
|
A. |
Vancomycin |
|
B. |
Clindamycin |
|
C. |
Ampicillin |
|
D. |
Ketoconazole |
ANS: B
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation B. |
|
B. |
Correct response: As many
as 10% to 40% of pregnant women are colonized with group B Streptococcus (GBS).
Their infants are at risk for death or severe morbidity if they are born
prematurely or after prolonged rupture of the fetal membranes. Vaginal/rectal
cultures are usually obtained at 35 to 37 weeks of gestation. Patients with
positive cultures should be treated with antibiotics from the time of
membrane rupture or from the onset of labor. Penicillin is the drug of
choice, with ampicillin being a good alternative. In case of allergy to
penicillin, clindamycin or erythromycin can be used. Vancomycin is indicated
in case of resistance to clindamycin and erythromycin. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation B. |
|
D. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation B. |
OBJ: Recall
7. What
is the main potential problem associated with the premature rupture of
membranes?
|
A. |
Fetal dehydration |
|
B. |
Fetal infection |
|
C. |
Maternal hypotension |
|
D. |
Maternal renal failure |
ANS: B
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See explanation
B. |
|
B. |
Correct response: In utero,
the fetus is contained in the sterile fluid-filled amniotic sac. If the
membranes that compose the external lining of the amniotic sac rupture before
term (before 37 wk of gestation) or before the onset of normal labor at term,
the fetal environment is no longer sterile, increasing the risk of fetal
infection. At the same time, the volume of fluid in the sac decreases. This
may cause compression of the umbilical cord, resulting in compromised blood
flow between the placenta and fetus. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation B. |
|
D. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation B. |
OBJ: Recall
8. Which
of the following maternal or fetal conditions can be determined or assessed via
amniocentesis?
9. Maternal
Rh isoimmunization
10. Trisomy
21
III. Placenta previa
1. Placental
abruption
|
A. |
I and II only |
|
B. |
III and IV only |
|
C. |
I, II, and III only |
|
D. |
II, III, and IV only |
ANS: A
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Correct response: Amniocentesis is
a sterile procedure involving the insertion of a needle through the skin and
uterine wall to obtain a sample of fluid from the amniotic sac. The
concentration of many substances in amniotic fluid can be measured. For
example, as the fetal lung matures, pulmonary surfactant is secreted from the
fetal lung into the amniotic fluid, where its concentration can be measured.
Women with Rh isoimmunization are at risk for delivering babies with severe
anemia secondary to hemolysis. The degree of hemolysis is correlated with the
concentration of bilirubin urinated by the fetus into the amniotic fluid.
Fetal cells isolated from amniotic fluid can be used to assess for fetal
chromosomal abnormalities (e.g., trisomy 21), fetal enzyme deficiencies
(e.g., Tay-Sachs), and certain discrete genetic mutations (e.g., sickle cell
disease). Placenta previa occurs when the
placenta covers the cervical os. Cesarean delivery is usually required.
Placenta previa is associated with advanced maternal age, multiparity, prior
cesarean delivery, and multiple gestation. A short umbilical cord predisposes
to placental
abruption (separation of the placenta before birth of
the newborn) and uterine inversion. A long cord is associated with cord prolapse (delivery
of the cord before the infant, with compromise of blood flow from
compression), cord knots, and nuchal
cords (cord wrapped around the infant’s neck). |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See explanation A. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See explanation A. |
|
D. |
Incorrect response: See explanation A. |
OBJ: Recall
9. Which
of the following maternal complications are associated with cesarean section?
10. Intraoperative
bladder or bowel injuries
11. Endomyometritis
III. Failure to progress in labor
1. Placenta
previa
|
A. |
I and II only |
|
B. |
II and III only |
|
C. |
III and IV only |
|
D. |
I, II, and III only |
ANS: A
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Correct response: Although
cesarean delivery might be the least traumatic method of delivery for the
fetus, for the mother it is associated with an increased risk of significant
blood loss, anesthesia complications, intraoperative bladder or bowel
injuries, postoperative wound infection, endomyometritis, and thromboembolic
events. The syndrome of transient
tachypnea of the newborn (wet lung or type II
respiratory distress syndrome) includes the clinical features of cyanosis,
grunting, and tachypnea during the first hours of life, and is more commonly
seen in infants delivered by cesarean section. Placenta previa occurs
when the placenta covers the cervical os. Cesarean delivery is usually required. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See explanation A. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See explanation A. |
|
D. |
Incorrect response: See explanation A. |
OBJ: Recall
10. How
should the therapist interpret an amniotic fluid index of 5 cm?
|
A. |
Polyhydramnios |
|
B. |
Multihydramnios |
|
C. |
Oligohydramnios |
|
D. |
Anhydramnios |
ANS: C
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation C. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation C. |
|
C. |
Correct response: The amniotic fluid index (AFI) is
calculated by measuring the largest vertical pockets of fluid in each of the
four uterine quadrants at the time of ultrasound examination. Oligohydramnios,
too little amniotic fluid or an AFI below 5 cm, is usually associated with
congenital anomalies (especially renal agenesis or urinary tract
obstruction), fetal growth restriction or demise, postterm pregnancy,
ruptured membranes, uteroplacental insufficiency, and use of prostaglandin
synthase inhibitors. Polyhydramnios,
too much amniotic fluid or an AFI higher than 24 cm, is frequently associated
with fetal malformations that might affect swallowing of amniotic fluid
(e.g., anencephaly, esophageal atresia, and tracheoesophageal fistula). |
|
D. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation C. |
OBJ: Application
11. A
fetus is undergoing a contraction stress test. Uterine contractions are
stimulated by the intravenous infusion of oxytocin into the mother. The fetal
PO2 drops below 12 mm Hg and causes the fetal heart rate to
slow. Which of the following conditions is likely indicated by this occurrence?
|
A. |
Placenta abruption |
|
B. |
Oligohydramnios |
|
C. |
Uteroplacental
insufficiency |
|
D. |
Nuchal cords |
ANS: C
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation C. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation C. |
|
C. |
Correct response: The
contraction stress test (CST) is conducted by continuously monitoring the
fetal heart rate (FHR) while uterine contractions are stimulated by the
intravenous infusion into the mother of a dilute solution of oxytocin. Even
in a normal pregnancy, fetal PO2 decreases with each uterine contraction, then rapidly
returns to normal. A fetal PO2 drop below 12 mm Hg, resulting in slowing of the FHR,
indicates uteroplacental insufficiency. This slowing of the FHR in response
to uterine contractions is called a late
deceleration. |
|
D. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation C. |
OBJ: Application
12. How
should the therapist interpret a fetal biophysical profile score of 7?
|
A. |
The fetus requires careful
evaluation and possibly immediate delivery. |
|
B. |
The fetus requires another
biophysical profile in 24 hours. |
|
C. |
The fetus appears to be
normal. |
|
D. |
The data are inconclusive
and the profile needs to be redone immediately. |
ANS: C
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See explanation
C. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation C. |
|
C. |
Correct response: The fetal
biophysical profile (BPP) assesses placental function and fetal well-being.
The BPP has been likened to the Apgar score. Five determinants of fetal
status are assessed and given a score of 0 to 2. Four are assessed by
ultrasonography. They are fetal breathing, fetal tone, fetal gross body
movement, and amniotic fluid volume. The fifth determinant is the nonstress
test. A BPP score of 8 to 10 is considered normal and reassuring; a score of
6 is equivocal and is generally repeated within 24 hours; BPP scores of 0 to
4 are clearly abnormal and are associated with poor perinatal outcomes and
require careful evaluation and usually immediate delivery. |
|
D. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation C. |
OBJ: Application
13. In
lieu of obtaining a scalp blood gas sample, what can the therapist do to
conduct intrapartum assessment of the fetus?
|
A. |
Fetal scalp stimulation |
|
B. |
Umbilical cord blood
sampling |
|
C. |
Placental blood sampling |
|
D. |
Biophysical profile |
ANS: A
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Correct response: Fetal
scalp blood obtained via transvaginal fetal scalp puncture, followed by blood
gas measurements, is done when persistent severe variable or late decelerations
of the FHR are diagnosed. Scalp blood pH greater than 7.25 is considered
reassuring; values of 7.15 or less signal high risk of fetal acidemia. Many
clinicians believe that scalp blood gas assessment in the face of an abnormal
FHR pattern more precisely defines the fetus at risk and can thus prevent
unnecessary forceps and cesarean deliveries. An alternative to scalp blood gas assessment is fetal scalp
stimulation. Using the underlying rationale of the nonstress test,
transvaginal stimulation of the fetal scalp to induce fetal movement results
in acceleration of the fetal heart rate and reassures the clinician that the
fetus is not hypoxemic or acidemic. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See explanation A. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See explanation A. |
|
D. |
Incorrect response: See explanation A. |
OBJ: Application
14. Which
of the following medications are used as tocolytics?
15. Magnesium
sulfate
16. Sodium
bicarbonate
III. Calcium carbonate
1. Indomethacin
|
A. |
I and IV only |
|
B. |
II and III only |
|
C. |
III and IV only |
|
D. |
I, II, and III only |
ANS: A
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Correct response: Once
preterm labor is diagnosed, prompt measures should be taken to try to stop
labor and prevent an early delivery. Intravenous hydration is commonly the
first approach used. However, it does not seem to be of clinical significance
in a well-hydrated patient. Excessive hydration should be avoided, because it
might potentiate the risk of pulmonary edema that is usually associated with
tocolytic use. The most commonly used tocolytics are magnesium sulfate,
-mimetic agents, and indomethacin (a prostaglandin inhibitor). Less commonly
used are nifedipine (calcium channel blocker), nitroglycerin (nitric oxide
donor drug), atosiban (oxytocin antagonist), and combination therapy. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation A. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation A. |
|
D. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation A. |
OBJ: Recall
15. Which
of the following outcomes is associated with intrapartum amnioinfusion of
postterm infants demonstrating meconium-stained amniotic fluid?
|
A. |
The data are inconclusive. |
|
B. |
The procedure is beneficial
for postterm infants having oligohydramnios. |
|
C. |
This practice places the
fetal heart into failure from volume overload. |
|
D. |
This procedure reduces the
rate of cesarean deliveries. |
ANS: D
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
D. |
Correct response: Meconium
aspiration is a significant problem with postterm pregnancies. Meconium
passage in utero is common after 42 weeks of gestation. It is frequently
associated with fetal hypoxia. Meconium becomes more concentrated in the
amniotic fluid when associated with oligohydramnios. Aspiration of meconium
may lead to obstruction of the respiratory passages and interference with
surfactant function. The infant should be intubated after delivery and
meconium should be aspirated from below the vocal cords for a better outcome.
A recent meta-analysis of prospective clinical trials of intrapartum
amnioinfusion for meconium-stained fluid revealed significant improvement in
neonatal outcome and a lower cesarean delivery rate. |
OBJ: Recall
Walsh: Perinatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care, 3rd Edition
Chapter 4: Neonatal Assessment and Resuscitation
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A
team has been summoned to the delivery room to perform neonatal resuscitation.
Because no perinatal history is available, which of the following information
would be useful for the resuscitation team to know in preparation for this
event?
2. Number
of babies expected
3. Age
of the mother
III. Gestational age of the infant
1. Presence
or absence of meconium
|
A. |
I and IV only |
|
B. |
II and III only |
|
C. |
I, III, and IV only |
|
D. |
I, II, III, and IV |
ANS: C
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation C. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation C. |
|
C. |
Correct response: Ideally,
a detailed history of perinatal problems associated with an infant who may
require resuscitation is available. Refer to Box 4-1 in Chapter 4 to view
antepartum and intrapartum information that would be beneficial for the
neonatal resuscitation team to have available to prepare for the situation.
If this information cannot be obtained, the neonatal resuscitation team will
be better prepared knowing at least: (1) whether the mother is in premature
labor, (2) the approximate gestational age of the infant, (3) the number of
babies expected, and (4) if meconium is present in the amniotic fluid. |
|
D. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation C. |
OBJ: Recall
2. What
measures can the therapist take to prevent heat loss and cold stress before
performing resuscitation on a preterm neonate?
3. Dry
the infant’s skin.
4. Wrap
the infant in prewarmed blankets.
III. Remove wet linens from around the infant.
1. Measure
the neonate’s body temperature.
|
A. |
IV only |
|
B. |
I and II only |
|
C. |
I, II, and III only |
|
D. |
I, II, and IV only |
ANS: C
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See explanation
C. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation C. |
|
C. |
Correct response:
Preventing heat loss is critical when caring for a newborn because cold
stress increases oxygen consumption and impedes effective resuscitation. The
infant should be delivered in a warm, draft-free area. Heat loss is greatly
reduced by rapidly drying the infant’s skin, immediately removing wet linens,
and wrapping the infant in prewarmed blankets. If the infant weighs less than
1500 g, wrapping the newborn in a topical polyethylene film reduces
evaporative heat loss but permits radiant heat transfer. Using polyethylene
wrapping on a very low birth weight infant at delivery reduces the risk of a
decrease in postnatal temperature and may reduce mortality. Hyperthermia
should also be avoided because increased body temperature causes increased oxygen
consumption. |
|
D. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation C. |
OBJ: Recall
3. While
stabilizing a preterm neonate before resuscitation, the therapist notices the
infant display laryngeal spasm, bradycardia, and a delayed onset of spontaneous
breathing. What could have caused these events to occur?
|
A. |
Applying vacuum pressure in
the range of 50 to 60 mm Hg |
|
B. |
Performing aggressive
pharyngeal suctioning |
|
C. |
Applying positive pressure
to the airway before suctioning the airway |
|
D. |
Flicking the bottoms of the
neonate’s feet immediately on delivery |
ANS: B
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation B. |
|
B. |
Correct response: The
therapist should suspect airway obstruction if the neonate’s respiratory
efforts are ineffective. The neonate’s head and neck must be immediately
positioned to clear the airway of obstruction. Once positioned, suction the
infant to clear secretions. Use either a bulb syringe or a suction catheter,
and limit each pass to 3 to 5 seconds at a time, clearing the mouth first and
then the nose. Monitoring the heart rate for possible bradycardia during
suctioning is important. Aggressive pharyngeal or stomach suctioning may
cause laryngeal spasm and vagal stimulation with bradycardia and may delay
the onset of spontaneous breathing. To avert injury and atelectasis and
interference with the infant’s ability to establish adequate ventilation,
avoid excessive suctioning of clear fluid from the nasopharynx. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation B. |
|
D. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation B. |
OBJ: Application
4. As
the head of a neonate contaminated with meconium emerges at birth, the heart
rate monitor indicates 120 beats/minute, and the physician notices that the
infant has good muscle tone and a strong respiratory effort. What should the
physician do at this time to provide airway care?
|
A. |
Intubate the infant
immediately. |
|
B. |
Perform pharyngeal and
tracheal suctioning immediately. |
|
C. |
Perform tracheal suctioning
only at this time. |
|
D. |
Do not perform
tracheal suctioning on this infant at this time. |
ANS: D
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
D. |
Correct response: Attempts
to suction meconium from the pharynx or trachea before birth, during birth,
or postpartum increase the likelihood of severe aspiration pneumonia. Some
obstetricians perform oral and nasal suctioning on meconium-stained infants
after delivery of the head, but before delivery of the shoulders. However, a
large, multicenter, randomized trial showed no benefit from this practice.
Therefore, current recommendations for infants with meconium are that (1) no
intrapartum suctioning should occur; (2) infants who are vigorous at birth
(strong respiratory effort, a heart rate of greater than 100 beats/min, good
muscle tone) should not receive tracheal suctioning; and (3) infants who are
not vigorous (no or poor respiratory effort, a heart rate of less than 100
beats/min, poor muscle tone) may receive direct laryngotracheal suctioning. |
OBJ: Application
5. A
preterm neonate with a heart rate of 55 beats/minute is receiving
positive-pressure ventilation immediately after delivery. What should the
therapist do at this time?
|
A. |
Apply cardiac compressions
and maintain positive-pressure ventilation. |
|
B. |
Defibrillate the infant. |
|
C. |
Administer medication to
increase myocardial contractility and maintain positive ventilation. |
|
D. |
Increase the respiratory
rate on the ventilator. |
ANS: A
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Correct response: Heart rate is a critical
determinant of the resuscitation sequence and should be greater than 100
beats/minute. If the heart rate is less than 100 beats/minute,
positive-pressure ventilation should be started immediately. Frequently,
effective positive-pressure ventilation alone will result in the heart rate
accelerating to greater than 100 beats/minute. If the heart rate is 60
beats/minute or less and adequate ventilation is being provided, chest
compressions should be initiated immediately. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation A. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation A. |
|
D. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation A. |
OBJ: Application
6. A
term infant is born displaying acrocyanosis. What should the therapist do at
this time?
|
A. |
Administer oxygen to the
newborn. |
|
B. |
Begin resuscitative
measures. |
|
C. |
Institute positive-pressure
mechanical ventilation. |
|
D. |
Do nothing, as this
condition is often transient. |
ANS: D
|
|
Feedback |
|
A. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
B. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
C. |
Incorrect response: See
explanation D. |
|
D. |
Correct response: Many
infants demonstrate acrocyanosis (blue extremities only) shortly after birth.
This condition is common in the first few minutes of life because of sluggish
peripheral circulation; oxygen therapy is unnecessary. On occasion, despite
adequate ventilation and a heart rate greater than 100 beats/minute, an
infant may continue to be cyanotic. If central cyanosis is present in an
infant with spontaneous respirations and a heart rate greater than 100
beats/minute, free-flow oxygen should be given until the cause of the
cyanosis is determined. |
OBJ: Application
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