Pathophysiology Introductory Concepts And Clinical Perspectives By Capriotti – Test Bank

 

 

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Sample Questions

 

Chapter 4: Stress, Exercise, and Immobility

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____    1.   Which is an example of eustress?

1.	Job promotion
2.	Death of a friend
3.	Unemployment
4.	Divorce

 

 

____    2.   A client is scheduled for a heart valve replacement. Which strategic action of the primary healthcare provider enhances the client’s adaptive ability and coping mechanism to reduce stress?

1.	Encouraging a family member to stay with the client in the pre-operative setting
2.	Permitting a family member to stay in the operation theater
3.	Administering epinephrine to reduce stress
4.	Restricting the family members from talking to the client in the pre-operative setting

 

 

____    3.   In which stage of Hans Selye’s general adaptation syndrome is the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) activated?

1.	Alarm stage
2.	Resistance stage
3.	Exhaustion stage
4.	Homeostasis

 

 

____    4.   What is polysomnography?

1.	A diagnostic test to examine sleep patterns
2.	A diagnostic test to examine eye movement
3.	A diagnostic test to examine respiratory functions
4.	A diagnostic test to examine electrical activity of the brain

 

 

____    5.   Which problem is a 55-year-old client most likely to exhibit as a result of prolonged benzodiazepine use?

1.	Unstable gait
2.	Bradycardia
3.	Dyspnea
4.	Anuria

 

 

____    6.   A client who has been taking an antidepressant for 10 days complains of depression and does not find the medication to be effective. Which is the best response by the nurse?

1.	“I will increase the drug dosage after informing the physician”
2.	“The medication will take at least 3 weeks to be effective.”
3.	“I will change the medication after informing the physician.”
4.	“Stop taking the medication.”

 

 

____    7.   Which is the most commonly used over-the-counter sleep aid?

1.	Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
2.	Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
3.	Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)
4.	Acetylcholine (Miochol)

 

 

____    8.   A registered nurse is explaining the effects of exercise on cardiovascular system to a student nurse. Which statement by the student nurse indicates effective teaching?

1.	“Exercise prevents thrombus formation.”
2.	“Exercise increases fibrinogen levels.”
3.	“Exercise prevents angiogenesis.”
4.	“Exercise increases the heart’s efficiency by decreasing cardiac muscle mass.”

 

 

____    9.   A client is on long-term bed rest. Which condition might the client develop due to immobility?

1.	Orthostatic hypotension
2.	Venous stasis
3.	Hypertension
4.	Dyspnea

 

 

____  10.   A bedridden client has frequent gastrointestinal reflux. Which condition might the client develop due to gastrointestinal reflux?

1.	Aspiration pneumonia
2.	Hypotension
3.	Hyperthermia
4.	Constipation

 

 

____  11.   A nurse is providing care for a client, who is on bed rest due to immobility. Which measure does the nurse adopt in order to counteract the ill effects of immobility?

1.	Assess the client’s skin for erythema.
2.	Place the client in prone position.
3.	Avoid seating the client on a chair.
4.	Change the position of the client every 4 hours.

 

 

____  12.   A client was hospitalized due to immobility. The blood report after one month of hospitalization shows that the client has developed septicemia. Which factor could have caused septicemia?

1.	Erythema
2.	Decubitus ulcer
3.	Antibacterial drugs
4.	Excessive exercise

 

 

____  13.   A client, who is on prolonged bed rest, has developed kidney stones. Which factor could have caused kidney stones?

1.	Change in the levels of glucose
2.	Change in the levels of growth hormone
3.	Change in the levels of thyroid hormone
4.	Change in the levels of parathyroid hormone

 

 

____  14.   Which statement is correct regarding the effects of exercise?

1.	Enlarges the muscle fibers
2.	Decreases the rate of breathing
3.	Increases the risk of colon cancer
4.	Decreases the number of mitochondrial enzymes

 

 

____  15.   What is the effect of physical activity on gastrointestinal system?

1.	Increases constipation
2.	Improves peristaltic movement
3.	Increases the risk of diverticulosis
4.	Increases the risk of inflammatory bowel diseases

 

 

____  16.   Which condition commonly found in inactive clients results in edema?

1.	Venous stasis
2.	Pulmonary embolism
3.	Hypertension
4.	Orthostatic hypotension

 

 

____  17.   What is the result of decreased cardiac output in a client, who is on a prolonged bed rest?

1.	Increase in stroke volume
2.	Increase in heart rate
3.	Increase in venous returns
4.	Increase in diastolic volume

 

 

____  18.   What happens when nitric-oxide dependent vasodilation occurs in the coronary arteries?

1.	Increase in platelet activation
2.	Increase in thrombus formation
3.	Increase in myocardial perfusion
4.	Increase in endothelial inflammation

 

 

____  19.   What is the physiological change that occurs in stage 5 of the sleep cycle?

1.	Heart rate decreases
2.	Breathing becomes rapid
3.	Breathing becomes regular
4.	None of the above

 

 

____  20.   Which stage of sleep makes it difficult to wake someone?

1.	Stage 1
2.	Stage 2
3.	Stage 3
4.	Stage 5

 

 

NARRBEGIN: Exhibit

Exhibit

NARREND

 

 

____  21.   A nurse is assessing the sleep history of different clients for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). Which signs could indicate that the client has OSA?

 

Client 1	Client 2	Client 3	Client 4
Excessive daytime sleepiness, snoring, and repetitive pauses in breathing during sleep	Drowsiness during daytime, able to sleep only 6 hours at night, snoring, and leg cramps at night	Difficulty getting back to sleep after waking during the night, hallucinations when awake, and jerking of the legs during sleep	Sleepwalking, nightmares, and leg cramps at night

 

1.	Client 1
2.	Client 2
3.	Client 3
4.	Client 4

 

 

Multiple Response

Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

 

____  22.   A client is on prolonged bed rest. What are the psychological changes the client would exhibit? Select all that apply.

1.	Increased anxiety
2.	Increased mood swings
3.	Altered tactile responses
4.	Increased levels of concentration
5.	Increased problem solving ability

 

 

____  23.   What gastrointestinal changes are seen in clients on bed rest? Select all that apply.

1.	Slowed peristalsis
2.	Diminished appetite
3.	Increased diaphragm strength
4.	Increased rate of intestinal absorption
5.	Decreased abdominal and pelvic muscle strength

 

 

____  24.   Which nutritional advice given by a nurse to a client under stress is appropriate? Select all that apply.

1.	“Eat a heavy meal before bedtime.”
2.	“Consume more soy products.”
3.	“Drink a glass of milk before going to bed.”
4.	“Add peanuts and brown rice to your diet.”
5.	“Add spinach and green vegetables to your diet.”

 

 

Completion

Complete each statement.

 

25.  A 50-year-old male client is scheduled for a cardiac exercise stress test. The predicted maximal heart rate in beats/minute is ____________________

Chapter 7: Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalances

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____    1.   What is oncotic pressure?

1.	The pushing force exerted by water in the bloodstream.
2.	The pressure exerted by electrolytes in the bloodstream.
3.	The force exerted by albumin in the bloodstream.
4.	None of the above.

 

 

____    2.   Which IV fluids should be avoided for a client with cerebral edema?

1.	Isotonic solution
2.	Hypertonic solution
3.	Hypotonic solution
4.	None of the above

 

 

____    3.   A client’s lab results show overproduction of aldosterone. What is the best nursing intervention to maintain serum electrolytes levels in the client?

1.	Administration of spironolactone
2.	Recommendation of sodium-rich foods
3.	Administer sodium chloride injection
4.	Give magnesium sulfate injection

 

 

____    4.   A registered nurse is teaching a student nurse about the reason for the development of natriuresis. Which statement made by the student nurse indicates effective teaching?

1.	“Natriuresis develops as a result of the excretion of large amounts of sodium.”
2.	“Natriuresis develops as a result of the excretion of large amounts of potassium.”
3.	“Natriuresis develops as a result of increased concentration of potassium and water in the blood.”
4.	“Natriuresis develops as a result of the reabsorption of sodium into the bloodstream.”

 

 

____    5.   A client has +3 pitting edema on the feet and also has ascites. What is the most important clinical feature to be monitored given this condition?

1.	Hemoglobin level
2.	Serum albumin level
3.	Red blood cells count
4.	White blood cells count

 

 

____    6.   During evaluation of a client who has undergone a bariatric surgery, the nurse finds that the client has an abnormally rapid heartbeat and hypotension. Which condition has the client developed?

1.	Dehydration
2.	Hypervolemia
3.	Hypernatremia
4.	None of the above

 

 

____    7.   A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone cardiac surgery. What is the best method to assess the client’s fluid loss or gain?

1.	Measuring body weight and vital signs every day
2.	Recording blood pressure and calorie intake every day
3.	Recording 24-hour fluid intake and output and calorie intake
4.	Taking waist measurement and placing a Foley catheter

 

 

____    8.   Which substance can reduce the body’s response to cardiac drugs?

1.	Calcium
2.	Sodium
3.	Potassium
4.	Magnesium

 

 

____    9.   A 55-year-old hypervolemic client has headache, muscle cramp, vomiting, and looks confused. Which condition has the client developed?

1.	Hyponatremia
2.	Hypernatremia
3.	Hypokalemia
4.	Hypocalcemia

 

 

____  10.   What is the best intervention to correct hypervolemic hyponatremia in a client diagnosed with a serum sodium level of 120 mEq/L?

1.	Administration of tolvaptan
2.	Administration of sevelamer
3.	Administration of alendronate
4.	None of the above

 

 

____  11.   What is the daily potassium requirement of humans for optimal cell functioning?

1.	20 mEq
2.	60 mEq
3.	3.5 mEq
4.	8.5 mEq

 

 

____  12.   A client is on digitalis and the lab results show that the client is hypokalemic. What effect could hypokalemia have on the drug administered?

1.	It might cause pericarditis.
2.	It can cause digitalis toxicity.
3.	It can increase the effectiveness of digitalis.
4.	It might not have any effect on digitalis.

 

 

____  13.   A physician orders IV potassium infusion for a hypokalemic client. Which intervention should be avoided by the nurse while administering IV potassium?

1.	Administration of hypertonic potassium chloride IV bolus
2.	Administration of diluted IV potassium
3.	Administration of 20 mEq of potassium chloride
4.	Slow administration of potassium supplements

 

 

____  14.   Which condition causes pseudohypocalcemia?

1.	Hyperkalemia
2.	Hyponatremia
3.	Hypophosphatemia
4.	Hypoalbuminemia

 

 

____  15.   A client has increased serum phosphorus levels. Which condition related to hyperphosphatemia would the nurse expect to find in the client?

1.	Hypocalcemia
2.	Hypernatremia
3.	Hypomagnesaemia
4.	Hyperkalemia

 

 

____  16.   Which substance is transported to the cells by facilitated transport?

1.	Glucose
2.	Sodium
3.	Potassium
4.	Albumin

 

 

____  17.   A client’s serum phosphorus level is 5.5 mg/dL. Which clinical manifestations would the client exhibit?

1.	Tetany and hypotension
2.	Tetany and muscle weakness
3.	Ataxia and hypertension
4.	Muscle weakness and tremor

 

 

____  18.   A client has hypertension and elevated serum calcium concentration. Which condition is likely to occur in the client?

1.	Osteopenia
2.	Platelet dysfunction
3.	Osteomalacia
4.	Ventricular fibrillation

 

 

____  19.   Which condition is called hypocalcemia?

1.	Serum calcium less than 8.5 mg/dL
2.	Serum calcium less than 2.5 mg/dL
3.	Serum calcium less than 1.5 mg/dL
4.	None of the above.

 

 

Multiple Response

Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

 

____  20.   A client is running a high temperature and is found to have fluid volume deficit. Which signs and symptoms are likely to appear in the client because of fluid volume deficit? Select all that apply.

1.	Orthostatic hypotension
2.	Crackles in lungs
3.	Dyspnea
4.	Poor skin turgor
5.	Dark urine with low specific gravity

 

 

____  21.   A client’s serum magnesium level is 1 mg/dL. What are the possible causes for this finding?  Select all that apply.

1.	Prolonged diarrhea
2.	Laxative abuse
3.	Liver failure
4.	Hyperparathyroidism
5.	Lack of vitamin D

 

 

____  22.   What nutritional advice should the nurse give to a hypokalemic client? Select all that apply.

1.	“Consume more orange juice.”
2.	“Add dried fruits to your diet.”
3.	“Consume more bananas and meat.”
4.	“Consume a low protein diet.”
5.	“Add more salt to your diet.”

 

 

____  23.   A registered nurse is teaching a student nurse about the effects of aldosterone.  Which statements made by the student nurse are correct? Select all that apply.

1.	“It increases blood volume.”
2.	“It increases blood pressure.”
3.	“It stimulates the excretion of sodium.”
4.	“It stimulates the reabsorption of potassium.”
5.	“It decreases renal perfusion.”

 

 

____  24.   A registered nurse is teaching a student how to analyze the electrocardiogram of a hypokalemic client. Which statements made by the student nurse indicate effective teaching?  Select all that apply.

1.	“A prolonged PR interval will be observed.”
2.	“A flattened T wave will be observed.”
3.	“A prominent U wave will be observed.”
4.	“Widened P waves will be observed.”
5.	“A reduced PR interval will be observed.”

 

 

Completion

Complete each statement.

 

25.       A client’s serum sodium level is 140 mEq/L and serum glucose level is 90 mg/dL. The client’s blood urea nitrogen is 12 mg/dL. Calculate the

Chapter 11: Disorders of the Immune System

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____    1.   Which cells are known as granular lymphocytes?

1.	Kupffer cells
2.	Microglial cells
3.	T cells
4.	Natural killer cells

 

 

____    2.   Where does maturation of T lymphocytes occur?

1.	Spleen
2.	Bone marrow
3.	Thymus gland
4.	Lymph nodes

 

 

____    3.   Which is the predominant immunoglobulin produced after a host’s re-exposure to an antigen?

1.	Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
2.	Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
3.	Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
4.	Immunoglobulin D (IgD)

 

 

____    4.   A 27-year-old client is pregnant. The blood group of the client and the fetus are incompatible. Which antibodies produced by the mother against the fetus’s blood cells do not affect the fetus?

1.	IgM
2.	IgG
3.	IgD
4.	None of the above

 

 

____    5.   Which immunity is developed by an individual after experiencing an illness?

1.	Innate immunity
2.	Active acquired adaptive immunity
3.	Passive acquired adaptive immunity
4.	None of the above

 

 

____    6.   Which is an example of passive acquired adaptive immunity?

1.	Newborns receiving immunity through breast milk
2.	Individuals becoming immune to chicken pox after infection
3.	Individuals becoming immune to measles after infection
4.	None of the above

 

 

____    7.   IgA is found most in

1.	tears.
2.	plasma.
3.	blood.
4.	All of the above.

 

 

____    8.   A registered nurse is teaching nursing students about passive acquired adaptive immunity. Which statement made by a student nurse indicates effective learning?

1.	“It provides immediate immunity.”
2.	“It is a short-term immunity.”
3.	“It is not associated with immunologic memory.”
4.	All of the above.

 

 

____    9.   A woman who is planning to get pregnant is ordered to obtain an antibody screening test. The test shows negative IgM. What does the test result indicate about the client?

1.	She has been exposed to rubella.
2.	She has developed rubella infection.
3.	She needs to be given the rubella vaccine.
4.	She is immune to rubella.

 

 

____  10.   A client develops an erythematosus rash on the hands two days after working in the garden. What type of hypersensitivity reaction has the client developed?

1.	Type I immediate
2.	Type II cytotoxic
3.	Type III immune complex-mediated
4.	Type IV delayed

 

 

____  11.   A registered nurse is teaching a student nurse about assessing the results of a Mantoux test done on a 15-year-old client. The results indicate 5 mm tissue induration. Which statement made by the student nurse indicates effective learning?

1.	“The client is has an active case of tuberculosis (TB).”
2.	“The client has had an exposure to TB.”
3.	“The client has not had an exposure to TB.”
4.	“The client should be given TB vaccine immediately.”

 

 

____  12.   A nurse is assessing four clients who are suspected to have systemic lupus erythematosus. Which client has developed the disease?

 

	Client 1	Client 2	Client 3	Client 4
Signs and symptoms	Fever, butterfly rash on face, and joint inflammation	Fever, swollen joints, and general malaise	Erythema nodosum, weight loss, and fever	Hypothermia, elevated red blood cell count, and weight gain

 

1.	Client 1
2.	Client 2
3.	Client 3
4.	Client 4

 

 

____  13.   A nurse is reviewing the prescriptions of four clients in the hospital. Compare the effects of the medications prescribed to the clients and identify the client who is most likely being treated for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).

 

Client 1	Client 2	Client 3	Client 4
Amoxicillin, vancomycin, Imodium	Hydrocortisone, hydroxychloroquine, methotrexate	Cyclophosphamide, mycophenolate, infliximab	Codeine, ibuprofen, naproxen

 

1.	Client 1
2.	Client 2
3.	Client 3
4.	Client 4

 

 

____  14.   A registered nurse is teaching a student nurse about the common side effects of methotrexate therapy, which is used to treat clients with rheumatoid arthritis. Which statement made by the student nurse indicates effective learning?

1.	“The client’s white blood cell count will be below 4,500 cells per microliter.”
2.	“The client’s weight will increase by 2 kg.”
3.	“The client’s urine specific gravity will be 1.030.”
4.	All of the above.

 

 

____  15.   A client with scleroderma complains of painful ulcers on the knees. Which condition has the client?

1.	Telangiectasis
2.	Calcinosis
3.	Sclerodactyly
4.	Raynaud’s phenomenon

 

 

____  16.   A registered nurse is teaching a nursing student about the diagnostic test done for chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis. What statement made by the student nurse indicates effective teaching?

1.	“Potassium hydroxide wet mount is used to diagnose candida infection.”
2.	“An antinuclear antibodies test is used to diagnose candida infection.”
3.	“A C-reactive protein test is used to diagnose candida infection.”
4.	“Urinalysis is used to diagnose candida infection.”

 

 

____  17.   A nurse is reviewing the prescriptions of four clients. Assess the effects of the medication prescribed and identify the client who is most likely being treated for chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis.

 

Client 1	Client 2	Client 3	Client 4
Ketoconazole	Codeine	Amoxicillin	Acyclovir

 

1.	Client 1
2.	Client 2
3.	Client 3
4.	Client 4

 

 

____  18.   A nurse is reviewing the prescriptions of four clients who are being treated for chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis. Compare the effects of the medications and choose the medication that is least effective in treating chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (CMC).

 

Client 1	Client 2	Client 3	Client 4
Itraconazole	Amorolfine	Fluconazole	Amphotericin B

 

1.	Client 1
2.	Client 2
3.	Client 3
4.	Client 4

 

 

____  19.   A client has a positive ELISA test. On examination, the client is found to have fever, weight loss, and candida infections. The client also complains of night sweats. What would be the CD4 levels?

1.	700 cells per microliter
2.	500 cells per microliter
3.	200 cells per microliter
4.	350 cells per microliter

 

 

____  20.   A nurse who is engaged in maternal-child health care has a blood sample drawn for rubella antibody screening. The test result shows very low titer values. Compare the nursing intervention stated and choose the best nursing intervention for the given situation.

1.	The nurse should consult the physician and receive the rubella vaccine immediately.
2.	The nurse should consult the physician and receive the MMR vaccine immediately.
3.	The nurse does not require any vaccinations.
4.	None of the above

 

 

____  21.   Which is an autoimmune disease?

1.	Osteoarthritis
2.	Rheumatoid arthritis
3.	Type II diabetes
4.	All of the above

 

 

Multiple Response

Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.

 

____  22.   A registered nurse is teaching nursing students about CD4 cells. Which statements made by a student nurse indicate effective teaching? Select all that apply.

1.	“The CD4 cells directly attack antigens.”
2.	“The CD4 cells produce immunoglobulins.”
3.	“The CD4 cells mature into plasma cells.”
4.	“The human immunodeficiency virus attacks CD4 cells.”
5.	“The CD4 cells are T cells that take part in cell-mediated immunity.”

 

 

____  23.   A registered nurse is teaching a student nurse about interpreting blood test reports and urinalysis reports of clients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which statements made by the student nurse indicate effective teaching? Select all that apply.

1.	“A high antinuclear antibodies (ANA) level is more specific to clients with SLE.”
2.	“Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is high in clients with SLE.”
3.	“Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia are often observed in clients with SLE.”
4.	“C-reactive proteins are low in clients with acute SLE.”
5.	“Urinalysis reports of clients with SLE show bacteriuria and pyuria.”

 

 

____  24.   A registered nurse is teaching a student nurse about the diagnosis and treatment of hypogammaglobulinemia. Assess the statements made by the student nurse and identify the statements that indicate the need for further teaching. Select all that apply.

1.	“The diagnosis should be made when a child is 1 year old.”
2.	“Bronchiectasis is common in clients with hypogammaglobulinemia.”
3.	“Decreased IgG levels are observed in clients with hypogammaglobulinemia.”
4.	“Decreased levels of IgM are observed in clients with hypogammaglobulinemia.”
5.	“Live vaccine should be administered to the client.”

 

 

____  25.   A registered nurse is teaching a student nurse about the diagnosis of AIDS. Assess the statements made by the student nurse and identify the statements that indicate effective learning. Select all that apply.

1.	“HIV RNA assay measures the viral load in clients with AIDS.”
2.	“A viral load of 5,000 copies indicates the client is at a high risk of developing AIDS.”
3.	“A CD4 to CD8 ratio of 2:1 is observed in clients with AIDS.”
4.	“A negative ELISA test indicates the client is positive for HIV.”
5.	“A Western Blot test is a conformity test for HIV antibody.”

Chapter 15: Arterial Disorders

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____    1.   A nurse hears a bruit while assessing the carotid artery of a client. What could be the reason behind the bruit?

1.	Turbulent blood flow in the artery
2.	Decreased blood flow in the artery
3.	Problems in the tricuspid valve
4.	None of the above