Oral Pathology For The Dental Hygienist 6th Edition By Ibsen – Test Bank

 

 

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Sample Questions

 

Ibsen: Oral Pathology for the Dental Hygienist, 6th Edition

 

Chapter 4: Infectious Diseases

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1.    Parenteral means:

a.	administered by mouth.
b.	administered by injection.
c.	an abnormal sensation such as tingling or prickling.
d.	malaise.

 

 

ANS:   B

 

	Feedback
A	Administered by mouth is oral administration. A drug administered by mouth is absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract (i.e., enteral).
B	Correct! Parenteral means administered by injection, including intravenous, intramuscular, and subcutaneous injection.
C	Paresthesia is an abnormal sensation such as tingling or prickling.
D	Malaise is a vague indefinite discomfort, debilitation, or lack of health.

 

 

REF:    87 | 348

 

2.    Which one of the following does not occur in impetigo?

a.	Itching
b.	Pruritus
c.	Regional lymphadenopathy
d.	Fever

 

 

ANS:   D

 

	Feedback
A	Itching can occur in impetigo.
B	Pruritis (itching) can occur in impetigo.
C	Regional lymphadenopathy can occur in impetigo.
D	Correct! Fever and malaise do not occur in impetigo.

 

 

REF:    120

 

3.    Which of the following is used to treat impetigo?

a.	Antiviral medications
b.	Topical or systemic antibiotics
c.	Corticosteroids
d.	Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents

 

 

 

ANS:   B

 

	Feedback
A	Antiviral medications are not used to treat impetigo.
B	Correct! Impetigo is caused by a bacterial infection; therefore topical or systemic antibiotics are used to treat it.
C	Corticosteroids are not used to treat impetigo.
D	Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents are not used to treat impetigo.

 

 

REF:    120

 

4.    Tonsillitis and pharyngitis are caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci. These conditions are significant because of their relationship to scarlet fever and rheumatic fever. Which one of the following may be related to heart valve damage?

a.	Rheumatic fever
b.	Strawberry tongue
c.	Scarlet fever
d.	Geographic tongue

 

 

ANS:   A

 

	Feedback
A	Correct! Rheumatic fever can result in heart valve damage and the development of bacterial endocarditis.
B	Strawberry tongue is associated with scarlet fever but not specifically with heart valve damage.
C	Heart valve damage is not a specific component of scarlet fever.
D	Geographic tongue is not associated with heart valve damage.

 

 

REF:    120

 

5.    Which antigen is injected into the skin to determine exposure and infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

a.	HLA-B27
b.	PPD
c.	VDRL
d.	IgE

 

 

ANS:   B

 

	Feedback
A	HLA-B27 is an antigenic marker present in most patients with Reiter syndrome.
B	Correct! PPD is injected into the skin to determine if the person has been exposed and infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C	VDRL is a serologic blood test used to confirm the diagnosis of syphilis.
D	IgE in the immune response causes mast cells to release their granules containing histamine.

 

 

REF:    121

 

6.    Which disease is caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum?

a.	Tuberculosis
b.	Actinomycosis
c.	Syphilis
d.	Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

 

 

ANS:   C

 

	Feedback
A	Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B	Actinomycosis is an infection caused by a filamentous bacterium called Actinomyces israelii.
C	Correct! Syphilis is caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum.
D	Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is caused by both a fusiform bacillus and a spirochete, Borrelia vincentii.

 

 

REF:    122

 

7.    Involvement and enlargement of the submandibular and cervical lymph nodes in tuberculosis is called:

a.	miliary tuberculosis.
b.	lymphadenopathy.
c.	scrofula.
d.	angioedema.

 

 

ANS:   C

 

	Feedback
A	Miliary tuberculosis is when the bacteria are carried throughout the body, causing involvement of organs such as the kidney and liver.
B	Lymphadenopathy is enlargement of lymph nodes associated with many illnesses and conditions.
C	Correct! Scrofula is the name for the involvement and enlargement of the submandibular and cervical lymph nodes in tuberculosis.
D	Angioedema is a diffuse swelling of tissue caused by vascular permeability of deeper blood vessels.

 

 

REF:    120

 

8.    Which one of the following is associated with scarlet fever?

a.	Black hairy tongue
b.	Median rhomboid glossitis
c.	Scrofula
d.	Strawberry tongue

 

 

ANS:   D

 

	Feedback
A	Black hairy tongue occurs when there is elongation and black discoloration of the filiform papillae often caused by tobacco, alcohol, hydrogen peroxide, or chemical rinses.
B	Median rhomboid glossitis is thought to be associated with Candida organisms.
C	Scrofula is involvement and enlargement of submandibular and cervical lymph nodes in tuberculosis.
D	Correct! Strawberry tongue is associated with scarlet fever.

 

 

REF:    120

 

9.    The most common sites for oral lesions in tuberculosis is/are the:

a.	tongue and palate.
b.	gingiva.
c.	floor of the mouth and mucobuccal folds.
d.	uvula and fauces.

 

 

ANS:   A

 

	Feedback
A	Correct! The tongue and palate are the most common sites for oral lesions in tuberculosis.
B	The gingiva is not a common site for oral lesions in tuberculosis.
C	The floor of the mouth and mucobuccal folds are not common sites for oral lesions in tuberculosis.
D	The uvula and fauces are not common sites for oral lesions in tuberculosis.

 

 

REF:    120

 

10.  The most characteristic form of this disease is the formation of abscesses that tend to drain from the mandible to the skin by the formation of sinus tracts, with sulfur granules in the pus draining from the sinus tracts.

a.	Actinomycosis
b.	Tuberculosis
c.	Syphilis
d.	Impetigo

 

 

ANS:   A

 

	Feedback
A	Correct! Actinomycosis is characterized by the formation of abscesses that tend to drain from the mandible to the skin by the formation of sinus tracts, with sulfur granules identified in the pus draining from the sinus tracts.
B	Tuberculosis is a primary infection of the lung. The signs and symptoms of this lung infection include fever, chills, fatigue, weight loss, and persistent cough.
C	Syphilis is not characterized by abscesses and sulfur granules.
D	Impetigo is a bacterial skin infection. The lesions are either vesicles or bullae.

 

 

REF:    121

 

11.  Congenital syphilis may cause a specific form of enamel hypoplasia called:

a.	mottling.
b.	mulberry molars.
c.	Turner tooth.
d.	pitting of teeth.

 

 

ANS:   B

 

	Feedback
A	Mottling of teeth results from high ingestion of fluoride during tooth formation.
B	Correct! Mulberry molars are caused by a form of enamel hypoplasia that occurs in congenital syphilis.
C	Turner tooth affects a permanent tooth and is caused by an infection involving the deciduous tooth.
D	Pitting of the teeth is a form of enamel hypoplasia caused by febrile illness or vitamin deficiency.

 

 

REF:    122 | 179

 

12.  In primary syphilis the oral lesion is called:

a.	a mucous patch.
b.	a chancre.
c.	a gumma.
d.	an ulcer.

 

 

ANS:   B

 

	Feedback
A	Mucous patch is the lesion in stage II, secondary syphilis.
B	Correct! Chancre is the lesion in primary syphilis.
C	Gumma is the lesion in stage III, tertiary syphilis.
D	An ulcer is a general descriptive term and is not the specific term used to describe the lesions of syphilis.

 

 

REF:    122

 

13.  Which of the following statements is not true about syphilis?

a.	Dark-field examination may be used to diagnose syphilitic lesions on the skin.
b.	Syphilis is generally treated with penicillin.
c.	The VDRL and FTA-ABS tests are commonly used to confirm the diagnosis of syphilis.
d.	The antibody titer increases if treatment has been successful.

 

 

ANS:   D

 

	Feedback
A	Dark-field examination is used to diagnose skin lesions.
B	Syphilis generally is treated with penicillin.
C	The VDRL and FTA-ABS are two serologic blood tests used to confirm the diagnosis of syphilis.
D	Correct! The antibody titer decreases if the treatment has been successful.

 

 

REF:    123

 

14.  Pericoronitis is most often associated with the:

a.	maxillary canines.
b.	mandibular third molars.
c.	maxillary second molars.
d.	mandibular first molars.

 

 

ANS:   B

 

	Feedback
A	Pericoronitis is not seen on maxillary canines.
B	Correct! Pericoronitis most often involves the mucosal tissue associated with partially erupted mandibular third molars.
C	Pericoronitis is not seen on maxillary second molars.
D	Pericoronitis is not seen on mandibular first molars.

 

 

REF:    123

 

15.  Which of the following is the name of the the soft tissue flap that covers the distal-occlusal part of an incompletely erupted third molar?

a.	Operculum
b.	Gingival flap
c.	Pericoronitis
d.	Partial eruption flap

 

 

ANS:   A

 

	Feedback
A	Correct! The operculum is the soft tissue flap that covers the distal-occlusal part of an incompletely erupted third molar.
B	The gingival flap is not an operculum.
C	Pericoronitis is the inflammation of the mucosa around the crown of a partially erupted or impacted tooth.
D	There is no such term as a partial eruption flap.

 

 

REF:    123

 

16.  Which of the following statements is true concerning a positive reaction to the PPD skin test?

a.	The patient has active tuberculosis.
b.	The patient is contagious.
c.	The patient has been infected previously with Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
d.	The patient is in need of hospitalization.

 

 

ANS:   C

 

	Feedback
A	A positive skin reaction to PPD does not mean that the patient has active tuberculosis.
B	A positive skin reaction to PPD does not mean that the patient is contagious.
C	Correct! A positive skin reaction to PPD means that the patient was previously infected with the bacteria.
D	A positive skin reaction to PPD does not require any hospitalization.

 

 

REF:    121

 

17.   

The gingivae are painful and erythematous. The interdental papillae appear as punched-out, necrotic, cratering areas. The overall sloughing of the necrotic tissue appears as a pseudomembrane over the tissues. The patient experiences a foul odor and metallic taste. On the basis of these features you suspect that this patient has:

a.	acute marginal gingivitis.
b.	primary herpes infection.
c.	necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
d.	pseudomembranous candidiasis.

 

 

ANS:   C

 

	Feedback
A	In acute marginal gingivitis there is no cratering and necrosis of the papillae.
B	In primary herpes simplex there is no cratering and necrosis of the papillae.
C	Correct! In necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis the gingiva are painful and erythematous, the interdental papillae are punched out and necrotic, and the patient experiences foul odor and metallic taste.
D	In pseudomembranous candidiasis a white curdlike material is present on the mucosal surfaces. The underlying mucosa appears erythematous.

 

 

REF:    123

 

18.  Acute osteomyelitis of the jaws may commonly result from which of the following conditions?

a.	Extension of a periapical abscess
b.	Surgery
c.	Fracture of the jaw
d.	Paget disease

 

 

ANS:   A

 

	Feedback
A	Correct! Acute osteomyelitis of the jaws commonly results from extension of a periapical abscess.
B	Acute osteomyelitis can result from surgery, but this is not a common reaction.
C	Acute osteomyelitis can result from fracture of the jaw, but again this is not a common reaction.
D	Paget disease has been associated with chronic osteomyelitis.

 

 

REF:    123

 

19.  Candidiasis is an overgrowth of a:

a.	yeastlike fungus.
b.	spirochete.
c.	filamentous bacterium.
d.	fusiform bacillus.

 

 

ANS:   A

 

	Feedback
A	Correct! Candidiasis is an overgrowth of a yeastlike fungus Candida albicans.
B	A spirochete, Borrelia vincentii, causes necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
C	A filamentous bacteria called Actinomyces israelii causes actinomycosis.
D	Fusiform bacilli are involved in the etiology of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

 

 

REF:    124

 

20.  Which of the following conditions does not contribute to the overgrowth of Candida albicans?

a.	Antibiotic therapy
b.	Dentures
c.	Cancer chemotherapy
d.	Angioedema

 

 

ANS:   D

 

	Feedback
A	Antibiotic therapy can cause an overgrowth of Candida albicans.
B	Dentures can contribute to an overgrowth of Candida albicans.
C	Cancer chemotherapy can contribute to an overgrowth of Candida albicans.
D	Correct! Angioedema is a type I hypersensitivity reaction and has nothing to do with Candida albicans.

 

 

REF:    124

 

21.  The most common type of candidiasis affecting the oral mucosa is:

a.	pseudomembranous type.
b.	erythematous type.
c.	chronic atrophic type.
d.	chronic hyperplastic type.

 

 

ANS:   C

 

	Feedback
A	Pseudomembranous candidiasis is a white curdlike material present on the mucosal tissues. The underlying mucosa is erythematous in appearance. It is not the most common type of oral mucosal candidiasis.
B	Erythematous candidiasis is often painful and may be localized or generalized. It is not the most common type of oral mucosal candidiasis.
C	Correct! Chronic atrophic candidiasis or denture stomatitis is the most common type of candidiasis affecting the oral mucosa.
D	Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis appears as a white lesion that does not wipe off. If it does not respond to antifungal therapy, a biopsy should be considered. It is not the most common type of candidiasis.

 

 

REF:    125

 

22.   

This lesion in the commissure is most likely caused by Candida albicans or a nutritional deficiency.

a.	Pseudomembranous candidiasis
b.	Angular cheilitis
c.	Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
d.	Chronic atrophic candidiasis

 

 

ANS:   B

 

	Feedback
A	Pseudomembranous candidiasis appears as a white curdlike material on the mucosal surface. The underlying mucosa is erythematous.
B	Correct! Angular cheilitis is a lesion seen in the commissure of the lips most likely caused by Candida albicans or a nutritional deficiency.
C	Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis is a severe form of candidiasis that occurs in patients who are severely immunocompromised.
D	Chronic atrophic candidiasis, denture stomatitis, is the most common type of oral candidiasis affecting the oral mucosa.

 

 

REF:    126

 

23.  Deep fungal infections include all of the following except:

a.	histoplasmosis.
b.	coccidioidomycosis.
c.	blastomycosis.
d.	actinomycosis.

 

 

ANS:   D

 

	Feedback
A	Histoplasmosis is a deep fungal infection widespread in the midwestern United States.
B	Coccidioidomycosis is a deep fungal infection more prevalent in the western United States.
C	Blastomycosis is a deep fungal infection most common in the Ohio-Mississippi river basin area.
D	Correct! Actinomycosis is not a deep fungal infection. It is caused by a filamentous bacterium.

 

 

REF:    127

 

24.  The initial infection and signs and symptoms of deep fungal infections, including histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, and blastomycosis, are usually related to disease in which of the following locations?

a.	Lung
b.	Kidney
c.	Lymph nodes
d.	Nasal cavity

 

 

ANS:   A

 

	Feedback
A	Correct! Deep fungal infections are most commonly primary infections of the lung.
B	The kidney is not the primary site for deep fungal infection.
C	The lymph nodes are not the primary site for deep fungal infection.
D	The nasal cavity may be a primary site for a rare fungal infection called mucormycosis.

 

 

REF:    127