Nutrition Essentials for Nursing Practice 6th Edition by Susan G. Dudek – Test Bank

 

 

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Sample Test

 

Chapter 3, Protein

1.	Protein is different from carbohydrates and fat because it contains what?
	A)	Hydrogen
	B)	Nitrogen
	C)	Oxygen
	D)	Calcium

 

 

2.	One classification of amino acids is essential amino acids. Essential amino acids are what?
	A)	The only amino acids necessary for growth and tissue maintenance
	B)	Amino acids that must be consumed in the diet
	C)	Amino acids that are found only in animal products and soy
	D)	Amino acids that are more important than nonessential amino acids

 

 

3.	Proteins are considered either complete proteins or incomplete proteins. What is one source of complete protein?
	A)	Gelatin
	B)	Soy
	C)	Kidney beans
	D)	Peanut butter

 

 

4.	You are admitting a healthy adult woman to the outpatient surgery department for the removal of a plantar wart. She weighs 70 kg. What is her recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for protein?
	A)	35 g
	B)	42 g
	C)	56 g
	D)	70 g

 

 

5.	You are the clinic nurse teaching newly diagnosed type II diabetics about nutritional diets. One of the subjects you will cover is how to figure out the recommended daily allowance for protein in a healthy adult. An exercise you give your class is to calculate your RDA for protein based on the weight of 75 kg. What would your RDA for protein be?
	A)	30 g
	B)	45 g
	C)	60 g
	D)	75 g

 

 

6.	Your nutrition class is learning about the relationship between protein and nitrogen. The assignment you give the class is to calculate how many grams of nitrogen are provided by 80 grams of protein. The answer is to be expressed in whole grams. What is the correct answer?
	A)	13 g
	B)	20 g
	C)	26 g
	D)	40 g

 

 

7.	The body needs an adequate supply of energy to prevent its protein being burned for energy. To prevent the burning of protein, termed protein sparing, what does the body need an adequate supply of?
	A)	Glucose
	B)	Fat
	C)	Carbohydrate
	D)	Carbohydrate and fat

 

 

8.	Which of the “MyPyramid” food groups contains only small amounts of protein?
	A)	Bread, Cereal, Rice, and Pasta group
	B)	Fruit group
	C)	Milk, Yogurt, and Cheese group
	D)	Meat, Poultry, Fish, Dry Beans, Eggs, and Nuts group

 

 

9.	Protein digestion is a complex process. The principal site of protein digestion is where?
	A)	Mouth
	B)	Stomach
	C)	Small intestine
	D)	Large intestine

 

 

10.	Protein must be broken down into smaller substances before the body can fully use it. For the body to absorb protein, it must first be broken down into what?
	A)	Polypeptides
	B)	Proteases
	C)	Amino acids
	D)	Glucose

 

 

11.	Each of us has a specific energy need for our body to function optimally. Once this energy need is met what will our body do with any excess protein consumed?
	A)	Store it unchanged as protein
	B)	Convert it to fat and store it
	C)	Excrete it unchanged in the urine
	D)	Convert it to urea and excrete it in the feces

 

 

12.	Many people throughout the world are practicing vegetarians. Those who are pure vegans are at risk for nutritional deficiencies because they do not eat natural food sources of specific nutrients. One problem with a pure vegan diet is that it does not include any natural food sources of what?
	A)	Iron
	B)	Zinc
	C)	Vitamin B12
	D)	Calcium

 

 

13.	Nitrogen balance in specific groups of people can be of concern. What is the state of nitrogen balance in infants, children, adolescents, and pregnant and lactating women?
	A)	Neutral nitrogen balance
	B)	Positive nitrogen balance
	C)	Negative nitrogen balance
	D)	Metabolic turnover

 

 

14.	There are several types of vegetarian diets including a lacto-vegetarian diet. What is it that lacto-vegetarians do not eat?
	A)	Cheese
	B)	Margarine
	C)	Eggs
	D)	Nuts

 

 

15.	Determining nitrogen balance in the clinical setting can be very valuable. To determine a patient’s state of nitrogen balance, a 24-hour urinary urea nitrogen collection is done. What do you also need to do?
	A)	Calculate the patient’s total calorie intake for that same day
	B)	Add a coefficient of 4 to that number to account for nitrogen lost in feces, hair, nails, and skin
	C)	Collect a 24-hour stool specimen on that same day to determine fecal nitrogen losses
	D)	Be sure that patient takes nothing by mouth on the day of the urine collection

 

 

16.	Complementary proteins are made by combining two protein sources to make a complete protein. What is an example of a complementary protein?
	A)	Black beans and kidney beans
	B)	Strawberry milkshake
	C)	Butterscotch pudding
	D)	Macaroni and cheese

 

 

17.	You are teaching a nutrition class at the local high school. Your subject for today is “Dietary Supplements and Caloric Intake.” One of the class activities you assign is to answer the following question: “An amino acid supplement that provides 15 g of protein and no other nutrients provides how many calories?” What is the correct answer?
	A)	0 calories, because the amino acids are in pill form
	B)	30 cal.
	C)	60 cal.
	D)	90 cal.

 

 

18.	It is necessary to restrict protein intake in clients diagnosed with certain disease processes, such as clients in renal failure who are unable to excrete nitrogenous wastes. What other disease process necessitates a protein-restricted diet?
	A)	Pancreatitis
	B)	Congestive heart failure
	C)	Severe liver disease
	D)	Diabetes mellitus

 

 

19.	Vegetarians do not always have adequate diets. Clinicians need to encourage vegetarians to do what?
	A)	Eat meat
	B)	Eat adequate calories
	C)	Take amino acid supplements
	D)	Eat complementary proteins at every meal

 

 

20.	Protein can be used by the body for fuel when what occurs?
	A)	Complete proteins are consistently ingested
	B)	When there are inadequate stores of iron in the body
	C)	When the RDA for B vitamins is met
	D)	When there is inadequate intake of calories

 

 

21.	Proteins have many different functions in the body. What determines a protein’s function?
	A)	The quality of the protein
	B)	The amino acids contained in the protein
	C)	The completeness of the protein
	D)	The shape of a protein

 

 

22.	Amino acids, the building blocks of proteins, have the ability to act as buffers in the body. This means that proteins can maintain normal blood pH. By maintaining normal blood pH, the body’s proteins are protected from being what?
	A)	Neutralized
	B)	Naturalized
	C)	Deneutralized
	D)	Denatured

 

 

23.	The ability of the body to digest protein occurs at different levels depending on the source of the protein. What is the approximate protein digestibility for soy and legumes?
	A)	85%
	B)	90%
	C)	95%
	D)	100%

 

 

24.	The body does not truly store protein. It does, however, maintain recycled amino acids from broken-down body proteins. What is this called?
	A)	Metabolic store
	B)	Protein turnover
	C)	Amino acid store
	D)	Metabolic pool

 

 

25.	You are admitting a client onto your unit with a diagnosis of marasmus, or protein-energy malnutrion (PEM). This diagnosis is most likely secondary to what?
	A)	A chronic disease
	B)	A recent trauma
	C)	The influence of affluence
	D)	The quality of the protein in their diet

 

 

26.	An 18-month-old victim of a car accident is being admitted to the pediatric ICU. In reviewing the orders for this client, you expect to see diet orders that provide what kind of nutritional therapy?
	A)	Aggressive
	B)	Slow and sure
	C)	Protein restrictive
	D)	Protein delayed

 

 

27.	What is the term used for practicing vegetarians who choose to occasionally eat meat, fish, or poultry products?
	A)	Vegans
	B)	Flexitarians
	C)	Semi-vegetarians
	D)	Lacto-ovovegetarian

 

 

28.	The range for protein for adults as recommended by The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range for protein is what percentage of total calories?
	A)	25% to 50%
	B)	20% to 45%
	C)	15% to 40%
	D)	10% to 35%

 

 

29.	You are caring for a client status 1 day post-colon resection with anastomosis. Your client has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place, putting him on NPO status. You know that this places your client in what state?
	A)	Protein-energy malnutrition
	B)	Negative nitrogen balance
	C)	Marasmus
	D)	Neutral nitrogen balance

 

 

30.	Using protein for energy is not an efficient use of the protein ingested. When 30% of the protein of the body is lost through catabolism what occurs? (Mark all that apply.)
	A)	Organ function is altered.
	B)	Body weight is lost.
	C)	A fluid and electrolyte balance is maintained.
	D)	Immune function is altered.
	E)	Breathing becomes impaired due to a loss of muscle strength.

 

 

 

Answer Key

 

1.	B
2.	B
3.	B
4.	C
5.	C
6.	A
7.	D
8.	B
9.	C
10.	C
11.	B
12.	C
13.	B
14.	C
15.	B
16.	D
17.	C
18.	C
19.	B
20.	D
21.	D
22.	D
23.	B
24.	D
25.	A
26.	A
27.	B
28.	D
29.	B
30.	A, B, D, E

Chapter 4, Lipids

1.	Fat is classified as either “good” fat or “bad” fat, or saturated and unsaturated fatty acids. What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?
	A)	The number of carbon atoms
	B)	Unsaturated fatty acids have at least one double bond between carbon atoms
	C)	The way they are absorbed
	D)	Saturated fats are found only in animal products

 

 

2.	Many of our foods are now labeled “heart healthy” to designate their nutritional superiority for our body. Which of the following oils is considered “heart healthy”?
	A)	Corn oil
	B)	Olive oil
	C)	Coconut oil
	D)	Sunflower oil

 

 

3.	Linoleic acid and alpha-linoleic acid are two fatty acids considered to be n-3 fatty acids. Another name for these fatty acids is omega-3 fatty acids. What are the best sources of omega-3 fatty acids?
	A)	Cold-water fish, such as mackerel, salmon, sardines, and lake trout
	B)	Meats, such as beef, veal, lamb, and pork
	C)	Foods made with hydrogenated oils, such as cookies, crackers, stick margarine, and shortening
	D)	Milk and milk products

 

 

4.	Cholesterol, a waxy substance found in all cell membranes, is found only in what foods?
	A)	Saturated fats
	B)	Hydrogenated fats
	C)	Foods made from plants
	D)	Animal products

 

 

5.	In the past few years much has been made of trans-fatty acids. The American public has been warned to attempt to eliminate “trans fats” from their diets. Why has this been encouraged?
	A)	Trans-fatty acids raise the level of “bad” cholesterol in the blood.
	B)	Trans-fatty acids lower the level of “bad” cholesterol in the blood.
	C)	Trans-fatty acids are found in coconut, palm, and palm kernel oils.
	D)	Trans-fatty acids account for most fat calories in the average American’s diet.

 

 

6.	Fatty acids are either essential or non-essential. What makes some fatty acids essential?
	A)	They are only found in fish.
	B)	They are saturated fatty acids.
	C)	They cannot be synthesized by the body.
	D)	They are found only in animal products.

 

 

7.	You are eating 1 tablespoon of a salad dressing that contains 14 g of fat and no protein or carbohydrate. How many calories will you consume in the salad dressing?
	A)	76 cal.
	B)	98 cal.
	C)	126 cal.
	D)	140 cal.

 

 

8.	It has been found that fats that are hydrogenated are what?
	A)	Found in cold-water fish
	B)	More likely to oxidize and become rancid than vegetable oils
	C)	More saturated than the original oil from which they were derived
	D)	Less saturated than the original oil from which they were derived

 

 

9.	Nutritional recommendations include lowering the intake of total fat in our diets. What is one strategy we can use to lower total fat intake in our diets?
	A)	Substitute regular margarine for butter.
	B)	Use artificially sweetened soft drinks in place of sweetened drinks.
	C)	Use herbs and spices in place of butter.
	D)	Use olive oil in place of corn oil.

 

 

10.	The recommendation for fat intake in the American diet is what?
	A)	10% of total calories
	B)	20% of total calories
	C)	30% of total calories
	D)	40% of total calories

 

 

11.	Which of the following is true of cholesterol?
	A)	Cholesterol provides 9 cal/g.
	B)	Cholesterol is an essential nutrient because it cannot be synthesized by the body.
	C)	Cholesterol in food comes from plants (the “good” cholesterol) and from animal products (the “bad” cholesterol).
	D)	Cholesterol is used by the body to synthesize bile acids and vitamin D.

 

 

12.	When does the body break down fatty acids incompletely creating an increase in ketone formation?
	A)	Starvation and uncontrolled diabetes
	B)	Periods of a high-fat intake
	C)	Coronary heart disease
	D)	Fat malabsorption syndromes

 

 

13.	What process in the body impairs the digestion of fat?
	A)	Diabetes
	B)	Stomach ulcer
	C)	Inflammation of the pancreas
	D)	Constipation

 

 

14.	The body is very efficient at converting what, when it is in excess, into adipose tissue?
	A)	Sugars
	B)	Starches
	C)	Protein
	D)	Fat

 

 

15.	What is “good” cholesterol?
	A)	High-density lipoproteins
	B)	Low-density lipoproteins
	C)	Very-low-density lipoproteins
	D)	Chylomicrons

 

 

16.	What do experts recommend limiting to cut saturated fat intake in the diet?
	A)	Butter
	B)	Beef
	C)	Cakes and cookies
	D)	French fries

 

 

17.	The fruit food group of the MyPyramid is virtually fat free. What is the exception to the rule in this food group?
	A)	Avocado
	B)	Banana
	C)	Cherries
	D)	Pineapple

 

 

18.	The serving size of a piece of meat is approximately the size of a deck of cards. What is its approximate weight?
	A)	2 ounces
	B)	3 ounces
	C)	6 ounces
	D)	8 ounces

 

 

19.	High-fat diets are known to be a leading cause of obesity in America. What are high-fat diets also implicated in?
	A)	Pancreatitis
	B)	Insulin resistance
	C)	Cystic fibrosis
	D)	Liver disease

 

 

20.	What dietary component raises serum cholesterol more than any other?
	A)	Cholesterol
	B)	Polyunsaturated fat
	C)	Saturated fat
	D)	Monounsaturated fat

 

 

21.	Monounsaturated fats are liquid at room temperature. Where are monounsaturated fats predominantly found?
	A)	Meat
	B)	Olive oil
	C)	Fish
	D)	Corn oil

 

 

22.	Even at rest the body has energy requirements. How much of the body’s caloric needs at rest are provided by fat?
	A)	30%
	B)	40%
	C)	50%
	D)	60%

 

 

23.	The stability of fats is influenced by their degree of unsaturation. Which fats are most susceptible to rancidity?
	A)	Saturated fats
	B)	Monounsaturated fats
	C)	Polyunsaturated fats
	D)	Trans fats

 

 

24.	What is the recommended dietary allowance of monounsaturated fats?
	A)	30%
	B)	35%
	C)	40%
	D)	There is none

 

 

25.	You are teaching a nutrition class in a bariatric clinic. One of your students asks, “If fat isn’t good for you, why not go on a fat-free diet?” You explain that fat does have several functions in food. What is one of those functions?
	A)	It absorbs flavors and aromas of ingredients to improve overall taste.
	B)	It makes meat more rare when you cook it.
	C)	It makes cheese have a rubbery feel.
	D)	It increases rancidity in foods.

 

 

26.	What are the recommended daily requirements of EPA and DHA to reduce the risk of heart disease?
	A)	500 mg/day
	B)	600 mg/day
	C)	800 mg/day
	D)	1000 mg/day

 

 

27.	Which fat is not digested by the body?
	A)	Monounsaturated fat
	B)	Cholesterol
	C)	Phospholipid
	D)	Trans fat

 

 

28.	Phospholipids are unique in that they can act as what in the body?
	A)	Absorbents
	B)	Stabilizers
	C)	Solutes
	D)	Emulsifiers

 

 

29.	What are the main reasons to hydrogenate a fat?
	A)	Improve function and increase rancidity
	B)	Improve function and decrease rancidity
	C)	Decrease function and stabilize
	D)	Decreases function and destabilize

 

 

30.	Trans fats are considered “bad” fats. What do they do in the body? (Mark all that apply.)
	A)	Lower HDL-cholesterol
	B)	Increase insulin resistance
	C)	Lower biomarkers of inflammation
	D)	Raise biomarkers of inflammation
	E)	Decrease the risk of colon cancer

 

 

 

Answer Key

 

1.	B
2.	B
3.	A
4.	D
5.	A
6.	C
7.	C
8.	C
9.	C
10.	C
11.	D
12.	A
13.	C
14.	D
15.	A
16.	B
17.	A
18.	B
19.	B
20.	C
21.	B
22.	D
23.	B
24.	D
25.	A
26.	A
27.	B
28.	D
29.	B
30.	A, B, D