Nutrition And You 4th Edition By Blake – Test Bank
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Sample
Questions
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes
the statement or answers the question.
1) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the
A) large intestine.
B) small intestine.
C) mouth.
D) stomach.
Answer: C
2) The process of photosynthesis produces which of the following molecules?
A) triglycerides
B) glucose
C) glycogen
D) fructose
Answer: B
3) The function of glycogen is to
A) create membrane structures in plants.
B) store energy in plants.
C) lower blood glucose levels when they rise after a meal.
D) store glucose in humans and animals.
Answer: D
4) Which of the following substances is not a polysaccharide?
A) glycogen
B) fiber
C) galactose
D) starch
Answer: C
5) Which of the following statements regarding the amount of carbohydrate you
should consume daily is
incorrect?
A) The minimum amount of carbohydrate needed for the brain to function
efficiently is 130 grams per day.
B) In the United States, adult males and females consume more than the minimum
DRI for carbohydrates.
C) The AMDR for carbohydrates is 20 to 35 percent of your total daily calories.
D) Eating the recommended daily servings for each food group in MyPyramid will
ensure that you meet
your minimum amount of carbohydrate.
Answer: C
6) Which of the following structures is the starchy part of a grain kernel?
A) endosperm
B) germ
C) husk
D) bran
Answer: A
7) Which of the following statements about enriched wheat bread is false?
A) It is missing the thiamin, niacin, and folate that are found in whole wheat
bread.
B) It is missing phytochemicals that are found in whole wheat bread.
C) It is made from the endosperm of the wheat kernel.
D) It is missing the fiber that is found in whole wheat bread.
Answer: A
8) Which part of the grain kernel contains vitamin E and heart-healthy fats?
A) bran
B) germ
C) endosperm
D) husk
Answer: B
9) To which of the following organs do monosaccharides go after absorption?
A) pancreas
B) liver
C) gallbladder
Answer: B
1
D) small intestine
10) People with a deficiency of the enzyme lactase cannot
properly digest
A) fiber.
B) milk sugar.
C) starch.
D) table sugar.
Answer: B
11) Which of the following statements about lactose intolerance is incorrect?
A) Clinical signs include diarrhea.
B) Lactase pills can help prevent symptoms.
C) All dairy foods must be completely eliminated from the diet.
D) Cheese is better tolerated than milk.
Answer: C
12) After the release of insulin, which of the following events will not occur?
A) Excess glucose will be stored in your liver as starch.
B) Excess glucose will be stored in your liver as glycogen.
C) Excess glucose will be stored in your muscles as glycogen.
D) Excess glucose will be stored in your fat cells as fat.
Answer: A
13) Which of the following statements regarding diabetes in children is true?
A) Obesity is not a risk factor for diabetes in children.
B) Type 1 is not the only type of diabetes seen in children.
C) Children with diabetes have fewer medical complications from the disease
because they are able to adapt
to the changes in glucose metabolism.
D) The last few decades have shown a steady decrease of diabetes among those
under the age of 20.
Answer: B
14) What is the source of glucose to supply the energy needs in a person who
has not eaten for seven hours?
A) muscle protein
B) the brain
C) stored fat
D) liver glycogen
Answer: D
15) When does glycogenesis occur?
A) during an emergency, when glycogen is broken down to release glucose
B) when there is excess glucose in the blood
C) when a person’s blood glucose level dips too low
D) when a person is fasting and glucose is generated from noncarbohydrate
sources
Answer: B
16) Approximately how long does it take for liver glycogen stores to be
depleted?
A) 12 hours
B) 8 hours
C) 4 hours
Answer: D
17) Which of the following statements about ketosis is incorrect?
A) It occurs when glycogen is broken down into glucose for energy.
B) Ketone bodies are the by-products of the incomplete breakdown of fat.
C) It causes your blood to become slightly acidic.
D) It often occurs in people who consume a low-carbohydrate diet.
Answer: A
2
D) 18 hours
18) The reason people who follow a low-carbohydrate diet are
often in ketosis is that
A) they eat inadequate amounts of fat.
B) they eat too much protein.
C) their diet lacks sufficient fiber.
D) they are unable to break down fat completely.
Answer: D
19) According to the latest DRIs, what is the recommended minimum amount of
carbohydrates that should be
consumed daily?
A) 50 grams
B) 130 grams
C) 250 grams
D) 25 grams
Answer: B
20) The current DRIs recommend that you consume ________ grams of fiber for
every 1,000 calories you eat.
A) 35
B) 5
C) 14
D) 28
Answer: C
21) Which of the following conditions in a person with diabetes does not result
from nerve damage?
A) numbness in the toes, feet, legs, and hands
B) cloudy vision and eventual blindness
C) changes in sexual function
D) a decreased ability to feel changes in temperature or pain in the legs and
feet
Answer: B
22) Which of the following hormones does not increase blood glucose levels?
A) adrenaline
B) insulin
C) epinephrine
D) glucagon
Answer: B
23) Which of the following statements concerning sugar is correct?
A) Eating sugar makes one gain weight.
B) Eating sugar is a direct cause of diabetes.
C) Eating sugar causes hyperactivity in children.
D) Eating sugar can contribute to dental caries.
Answer: D
24) Which of the following sugar substitutes was removed by the National
Toxicology Program from the list of
substances that could potentially cause cancer?
A) saccharin
B) mannitol
C) sucralose
D) aspartame
Answer: A
25) Which of the following statements about aspartame is incorrect?
A) The FDA has concluded that it is safe to consume it.
B) People with PKU should monitor its intake.
C) Its trade name is Sweet ‘N Low.
D) It is composed of two amino acids.
Answer: C
26) Which of the following statements does not present a health benefit
attributed to eating insoluble fiber?
A) It lowers the risk of developing diverticulosis.
B) It lowers the risk of developing obesity.
C) It lowers the risk of developing kidney disease.
D) It lowers the risk of developing constipation.
Answer: C
3
27) Which of the following statements about type 1 diabetes is
incorrect?
A) The immune system destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas.
B) Insulin is produced, but cells are not using it properly.
C) Daily insulin injections are required.
D) It usually begins in childhood.
Answer: B
28) If poorly managed, diabetes can increase the likelihood of all of the
following outcomes except
A) breast cancer.
B) eye diseases.
C) kidney disease.
D) amputations of limbs.
Answer: A
29) Which of the following is not the name of a sugar?
A) lignin
C) high-fructose corn syrup
B) malt syrup
D) dextrose
Answer: A
30) Which of the following foods is most likely to promote dental caries?
A) cheese
B) carrots
C) raisins
D) chewing gum with xylitol
Answer: C
31) Which of the following carbohydrates is also known as table sugar?
A) sucrose
B) fructose
C) lactose
D) maltose
Answer: A
32) Which of the following carbohydrates is made from two glucose units joined
together?
A) maltose
B) lactose
C) sucrose
D) galactose
Answer: A
33) Which of the following carbohydrates is the storage form of glucose in
animals?
A) glucose
B) starch
C) glycogen
D) fiber
Answer: C
34) Which of the following carbohydrates is a chain of glucose units found in
plants only?
A) fiber
B) starch
C) maltose
D) glycogen
Answer: B
35) Which of the following carbohydrates is also known as milk sugar?
A) sucrose
B) glucose
C) lactose
D) maltose
Answer: C
36) ________ should not be given to infants younger than one year of age
because of the risk of botulism.
A) Honey
B) High-fructose corn syrup
C) Brown sugar
D) Molasses
Answer: A
37) The disaccharide lactose is composed of glucose and
A) maltose.
B) sucrose.
Answer: C
4
C) galactose.
D) fructose.
38) The enzyme ________ begins the digestion of starch in the
mouth.
A) maltase
B) sucrase
C) amylase
D) lactase
Answer: C
39) The ________ converts galactose and fructose to glucose.
A) pancreas
B) gall bladder
C) stomach
D) liver
Answer: D
40) The ________ refers to the measured upward rise, peak, and eventual fall of
blood glucose following the
consumption of a carbohydrate-intense food.
A) glucose capacity
B) anemia-prevention index
C) glycemic index
D) diabetic index
Answer: C
41) Both fat and ________ are important sources of stored energy.
A) glycogen
B) fiber
C) glucagon
D) hydrogen
Answer: A
42) Epinephrine can stimulate ________ to quickly flood the blood with glucose.
A) gluconeogenesis
B) ketoacidosis
C) glycogenolysis
D) ketosis
Answer: C
43) When too much sugar is consumed in the diet, glucose in the blood exceeds
the body’s need for energy, and
glucose is stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles, and as ________ in fat
tissue.
A) glucagon
B) ketone bodies
C) glycerol
D) triglycerides
Answer: D
44) All sugar substitutes must be approved by the ________ before they are
allowed in food products sold in the
United States.
A) MBA
B) ADA
C) AMA
D) FDA
Answer: D
45) The artificial sweetener Splenda contains ________, which is a modified
sucrose molecule.
A) sorbitol
B) sucralose
C) saccharin
D) aspartame
Answer: B
46) ________ cells and red blood cells rely on glucose for energy.
A) Skin
B) Cone
C) Basal
D) Brain
Answer: D
47) Plants make glucose through a process called
A) mitosis.
B) respiration.
C) photosynthesis.
D) acceleration.
Answer: C
48) Which of the following items is not a number-one source of added sugars in
the American diet?
A) sports drinks
B) breakfast cereals
C) sodas
D) energy drinks
Answer: B
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49) The sugar substitute aspartame is composed of two ________
acids.
A) fatty
B) lactic
C) deoxyribonucleic
D) amino
Answer: D
50) Insulin and glucagon are hormones released by the
A) stomach.
B) brain.
C) liver.
D) pancreas.
Answer: D
51) Viscous soluble fiber helps to lower blood cholesterol levels by
interfering with the reabsorption of ________ in
the intestines.
A) sugar
B) bile acids
C) uric acid
D) protein
Answer: B
52) The creation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources (primarily proteins)
is called
A) glycogneogenesis.
B) glucogenesis.
C) gluconeogenesis.
D) glycogenolysis.
Answer: C
53) The by-products of incomplete fat breakdown are known as
A) ketone bodies.
B) keratin fibers.
C) glucose monomers.
D) collagen fibers.
Answer: A
54) Symptoms of ________ include light-headedness, dizziness, shakiness, and
hunger.
A) hyperglycemia
B) prediabetes
C) ketosis
D) hypoglycemia
Answer: D
TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is
false.
55) Simple carbohydrates include monosaccharides and disaccharides.
Answer:
True
False
56) The glycogen stored in meat and poultry is a significant
source of calories in our diet.
Answer:
True
False
57) The Nutrition Facts panel currently used on food labels distinguishes
between naturally occurring and added
sugars.
Answer:
True
False
58) When choosing to eat fruit, fresh or frozen fruit is
superior to canned fruit.
Answer:
True
False
59) It is safe to give honey to children of any age.
Answer:
True
False
60) Refined grains are more nutrient-dense than whole grains.
Answer:
True
False
61) When blood glucose levels rise, insulin is released by the
kidneys to lower the level.
Answer:
True
False
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62) Individuals who follow a strict low-carbohydrate diet are
often in ketosis.
Answer:
True
False
63) Eating cheese has been shown to protect teeth from acid.
Answer:
True
False
64) The DRIs recommend 18 grams of fiber for every 1,000
calories consumed.
Answer:
True
False
65) About 80 million people have prediabetes.
Answer:
True
False
66) Children can have type 1 diabetes but cannot have type 2
diabetes.
Answer:
True
False
67) All the nutrients and phytochemicals lost in the processing
of wheat flour are added back in the enrichment
process.
Answer:
True
False
68) Being overweight puts a person at higher risk for developing
type 2 diabetes, the most common type of
diabetes.
Answer:
True
False
69) Diabetics can help avoid hypoglycemia by eating smaller,
well-balanced meals throughout the day.
Answer:
True
False
70) Pectin is an insoluble fiber that moves quickly through the
intestinal tract and has a laxative effect.
Answer:
True
False
71) The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial showed that an
intense regimen that controlled blood glucose
had no effect on the development of complications from type 1 diabetes.
Answer:
True
False
72) Insulin can direct the conversion of excess glucose into
fat.
Answer:
True
False
73) When fasting continues long beyond glycogen depletion, body
protein will be broken down to make glucose.
Answer:
True
False
74) The main role of carbohydrates is to supply building
material for muscles.
Answer:
True
False
75) Insulin is not made in type 2 diabetes.
Answer:
True
False
76) Type 2 diabetes accounts for 90 to 95 percent of cases of
the disease.
Answer:
True
False
7
77) Type 1 diabetes requires daily insulin injections or an
insulin pump.
Answer:
True
False
78) Being overweight increases the risk of type 1 diabetes.
Answer:
True
False
79) Type 1 diabetes is caused by insulin resistance.
Answer:
True
False
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate
sheet of paper.
80) Compare the DRI recommendation for added sugar with the Dietary Guidelines
for Americans, 2010’s
recommendation for added sugar.
Answer: The DRI recommends that less than 25% of daily calories come from added
sugar, whereas the Dietary
Guidelines for Americans, 2010 recommends that no more than 5% to 15% of daily
calories come from a
combination of added sugar and solid fats.
81) Briefly discuss the complications that arise from poorly managed diabetes.
Answer: Complications of diabetes can include cardiovascular disease,
blindness, reduced circulation leading to
amputations of limbs, kidney failure, nerve damage, tooth loss, and gum
problems.
82) What is the difference between insoluble fiber and soluble fiber?
Answer: Insoluble fiber does not dissolve in water, whereas soluble fiber does.
Insoluble fiber holds water in the
stool and thereby helps with constipation, diverticulosis, certain cancers,
heart disease, and obesity.
Soluble fiber binds bile salts and can help to lower cholesterol (and thus
reduce the risk of heart disease)
as well as slow the digestion of carbohydrates, thereby lowering the risk of
constipation and obesity and
helping to lower blood glucose levels after meals in people with diabetes.
83) Why is whole-grain bread a better choice than enriched bread?
Answer: Whole-grain bread has abundant vitamins, minerals, phytochemicals, and
fiber; enriched bread has
some vitamins and minerals but the fiber and phytochemicals have been removed.
84) List at least five ways you can improve your tolerance to lactose in dairy
foods.
Answer: Choose dairy foods that are better tolerated, such as Swiss or cheddar
cheese and yogurts that contain
active cultures. Try reduced-lactose milk and dairy products. Take lactase
pills with dairy foods.
Consume smaller amounts of dairy foods throughout the day. Eat dairy foods with
a meal or snack rather
than by themselves. Add dairy foods to the diet gradually.
85) Identify at least four ways you can increase the amount of fiber in your
diet.
Answer: Eat whole grains instead of processed grains (whole-wheat bread instead
of white bread, and brown rice
instead of white rice). Eat more whole fruits and vegetables. Snack on
100-percent whole-wheat crackers
or popcorn. Add beans and other legumes to your meals. Eat a high-fiber cereal
every day, for breakfast
or as a snack. Note that increasing fiber intake too quickly can be harmful, so
increase fiber consumption
gradually and drink more fluids.
8
86) What are the four mechanisms that may account for fiber’s
role in fighting colorectal cancer?
Answer: 1) Fiber increases the bulk of stool, which can dilute cancer-promoting
agents in the colon. 2) Fiber helps
move stool through the digestive tract, limiting the time cancer-promoting
substances are in contact with
the intestinal lining. 3) Fiber promotes the growth of friendly bacteria and
their fermentation
by-products, which may fight cancer. 4) Fiber binds with bile acids and reduces
their concentration in the
colon, which may deter the development of colorectal cancer.
87) Compare and contrast type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Construct a table to
organize your ideas and include mention
of the causes, treatments, prevalence, and age of onset of each type.
Answer:
Cause
Treatment
Prevalence
Age of Onset
Type 1
Immune system destroys
insulin-producing cells of the
pancreas
Daily injections of insulin or an
insulin pump
5 to 10 percent
Usually childhood or young
adult
Type 2
Insulin resistance in which
body cells are unresponsive to
insulin
Weight loss and/or
medications
90 to 95 percent
Usually older person, but
increasingly seen in
overweight youngsters
88) Describe how fasting or being on a low-carbohydrate diet can
lead to ketosis.
Answer: Once glycogen depletion has occurred (whether following low
carbohydrate intake or fasting), the body’s
stored fat is metabolized to provide glucose for energy. For fat to be used
efficiently to provide energy,
carbohydrates must be present, so with a low-carbohydrate diet or fasting, fat
metabolism becomes
inefficient. After a short while, the inefficient metabolism of fat leads to
the formation of by-products
called ketone bodies, which subsequently build up in the blood, producing the
state of ketosis.
89) Discuss the complete process of carbohydrate digestion, beginning in the
mouth.
Answer: Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth with the action of amylase
in the saliva on starch in the food.
The action of amylase continues until stomach acids deactivate this enzyme. The
arrival of food in the
small intestine stimulates the release of another enzyme, pancreatic amylase,
which further breaks down
starch molecules into the disaccharides maltose, lactose, and sucrose. Then
brush border enzymes
(maltase, lactase, and sucrose) in the microvilli break the disaccharides into
the monosaccharides glucose,
galactose, and fructose. These monosaccharides are absorbed into the
bloodstream and transported to the
liver, where the fructose and galactose are converted to glucose, which is
either stored in the liver or
transported in the blood for delivery to your cells. The fiber continues down
to the large intestine, where
some of it is metabolized by bacteria in your colon. The majority of the fiber
is eliminated in stool.
9
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes
the statement or answers the question.
1) Which of the following statements about vitamins is incorrect?
A) They are organic compounds.
B) They are needed for growth.
C) They provide energy.
D) They are tasteless.
Answer: C
2) Which of the following vitamins is transported in a micelle along with bile
and fatty acids?
A) niacin
B) riboflavin
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin A
Answer: D
3) Which of the following conditions will not destroy the vitamin content of
foods?
A) cold
B) air
C) heat
D) water
Answer: A
4) Which of the following statements about xerophthalmia is correct?
A) It mainly affects the gallbladder.
B) It often results from an overdose of vitamin A.
C) It can result from the consumption of too many carrots.
D) It is defined as permanent damage to the cornea resulting from a vitamin A
deficiency.
Answer: D
5) Which of the following substances is a form of naturally occurring vitamin E?
A) beta-carotene
B) riboflavin
C) pantothenic acid
D) alpha-tocopherol
Answer: D
6) Which of the following vitamins is light sensitive and abundant in milk?
A) alpha-tocopherol
B) thiamin
C) riboflavin
D) vitamin C
Answer: C
7) Which of the following vitamins is essential for blood clotting?
A) vitamin D
B) vitamin K
C) vitamin A
D) vitamin C
Answer: B
8) Which of the following vitamins is important in a woman’s diet before she
conceives a baby?
A) pantothenic acid
B) riboflavin
C) vitamin D
D) folate
Answer: D
9) Which of the following vitamins has been shown to reduce the risk of certain
cancers, especially colon cancer?
A) thiamin
B) vitamin C
C) alpha-tocopherol
D) folate
Answer: D
10) Vitamin C is necessary for which of the following processes?
A) vitamin B12 synthesis
B) blood clotting
C) bone growth
D) collagen production
Answer: D
11) Pellagra is a condition associated with a deficiency of which vitamin?
A) vitamin D
B) vitamin B3
C) vitamin C
Answer: B
1
D) vitamin B2
12) Which of the following conditions is a vitamin D deficiency
disease in children?
A) osteoporosis
B) beriberi
C) rickets
D) osteomalacia
Answer: C
13) Which of the following conditions is not caused by a vitamin D deficiency?
A) scurvy
B) rickets
C) osteoporosis
D) osteomalacia
Answer: A
14) Which of the following factors is not responsible for the increase in cases
of rickets in the United States?
A) increased use of sunscreens
B) consumption of low-fat milk
C) air pollution
D) scarcity of outdoor activities
Answer: B
15) Which of the following vitamins cannot be synthesized by your body?
A) biotin
B) vitamin C
C) vitamin D
D) vitamin K
Answer: B
16) Thiamin deficiency results in which of the following conditions?
A) pellagra
B) rickets
C) scurvy
D) beriberi
Answer: D
17) The phytochemical anthocyanin is found in
A) barley.
B) bananas.
C) broccoli.
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