Microbiology A Systems Approach 3rd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan – Test Bank

 

 

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Sample Test

ch03
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The Five I’s of studying microorganisms include all of the following except
A. Inoculation
B. Incubation
C. Infection
D. Isolation
E. Identification
2. The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium
is
A. Isolation
B. Inoculation
C. Immunization
D. Infection
E. Contamination
3. A pure culture contains
A. Only one species of microorganism
B. Only bacteria
C. A variety of microbes from one source
D. A variety of species from the same genus
E. None of the choices are correct
4. The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put ino a nutrient medium in
order to produce a culture is the
A. Colony
B. Inoculum
C. Streak
D. Loop
E. None of the choices are correct
5. Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies?
A. Broth medium
B. Differential medium
C. Selective medium
D. Solid medium
E. Assay medium
6. Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar along with some colonies
on the surface?
A. Streak plate
B. Spread plate
C. Pour plate
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
7. What type of isolation technique is most effective for the majority of applications?
A. Pour plate
B. Streak plate
C. Spread plate
D. Loop dilution
E. Culture plate
8. Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled?
A. A pure culture
B. A mixed culture
C. A solid medium
D. A liquid medium
E. A contaminated medium
9. Agar is an important component of media because
A. Bacteria require agar to grow
B. Agar inhibits mold growth
C. Agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth
D. Agar prevents contamination
E. All of the choices are correct
10. The three physical forms of laboratory media are
A. Solid, liquid, gas
B. Solid, semisolid, liquid
C. Streak plate, pour plate, broth
D. Aerobic, anaerobic, micro aerobic
E. None of the choices are correct
11. Which of the following is not an inoculating tool?
A. Petri dish
B. Loop
C. Needle
D. Pipette
E. Swab
12. Agar is a complex polysaccharide that comes from a/an
A. Green plant
B. Fungus
C. Mold
D. Algae
E. Euglena
13. Which of the following is not a benefit of agar as a solid medium?
A. Flexibility
B. Holds moisture
C. Can be inoculated and poured at a temperature that is not harmful
D. Solid at room temperature
E. Is digested by most microbes
14. A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations
known and reproducible, would be termed
A. Complex
B. Reducing
C. Enriched
D. Synthetic
E. None of the choices are correct
15. A nutrient medium that contains at least one ingredient that is NOT chemically definable would be
termed
A. Complex
B. Reducing
C. Enriched
D. Synthetic
E. None of the choices are correct
16. All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except
A. Broth
B. Enriched
C. Agar
D. Petri dish
E. Gel
17. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium.
Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation?
A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum
B. The culture is contaminated
C. The incubation temperature was incorrect
D. The culture medium must be selective
E. The culture medium must be differential
18. A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is
A. Blood agar
B. Trypticase soy agar
C. Mannitol salt agar
D. MacConkey medium
E. A reducing medium
19. A reducing medium contains
A. Sugars that can be fermented
B. Extra oxygen
C. Hemoglobin, vitamins or other growth factors
D. Substances that remove oxygen
E. Inhibiting agents
20. Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an
observable change in the colonies or in the medium?
A. Differential
B. Selective
C. Enumeration
D. Enriched
E. Reducing
21. A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycollic acid. What type of microbe
is she attempting to culture?
A. Fastidious
B. Gram positive
C. Anaerobic
D. Gram negative
E. Aerobic
22. Differential media results in which of the following growth characteristics?
A. Different color colonies
B. Different media color post incubation
C. Precipitates
D. Gas bubbles
E. All of the choices are correct
23. A reducing media is used to culture
A. Fastidious organisms
B. Aerobic organisms
C. Anaerobic organisms
D. Any pathogenic organisms
E. None of the choices are correct
24. For which bacterial genus is mannitol salt agar selective?
A. Salmonella
B. Streptococcus
C. Neisseria
D. Staphylococcus
E. Escherichia
25. A microbiologist must culture a patient’s feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would
likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen?
A. NaCl
B. Sheep red blood cells
C. Bile salts
D. Thioglycollic acid
E. Peptone
26. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed
A. Aerobic
B. Anaerobic
C. Fastidious
D. Microaerophilic
E. Autotrophic
27. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both
Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture.
What is the most likely explanation?
A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum
B. The culture is contaminated
C. The incubation temperature was incorrect
D. The culture medium must be selective
E. The culture medium must be differential
28. What is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony?
A. Axenic
B. Mixed
C. Pure
D. Both axenic and mixed
E. Both axenic and pure
29. Newly inoculated cultures must be _____ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth.
A. Streaked
B. Poured
C. Incubated
D. All of the choices are correct
30. The _____ of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses.
A. Stage
B. Condenser
C. Objective
D. Ocular
E. Nosepiece
31. Which of the following will converge light rays to a single focal point on the specimen?
A. Ocular lens
B. Objective lens
C. Iris diaphragm
D. Condenser
E. Nosepiece
32. Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen?
A. Condenser
B. Objective lens
C. Ocular lens
D. Body
E. Nosepiece
33. Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the virtual image of the specimen?
A. Objective lens
B. Ocular lens
C. Condenser
D. Body
E. Iris diaphragm
34. Which of the following controls the amount of light entering the specimen?
A. Objective lens
B. Ocular lens
C. Condenser
D. Body
E. Iris diaphragm
35. If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power
of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X?
A. 100X
B. 950X
C. 85X
D. 850X
E. 95X
36. Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen
by the _____ lens. This image is then projected to the _____ lens that will further magnify the specimen
to form a virtual image received by the eye.
A. Ocular, objective
B. Scanning, objective
C. Objective, ocular
D. Ocular, oil
E. None of the choices are correct
37. Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope’s ability to show two separate entities as
separate and distinct?
A. Resolving power
B. Magnification
C. Refraction
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
38. All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of
resolution of 0.2μm except
A. 0.2 μm
B. 0.2 mm
C. 0.1 μm
D. 0.3 μm
E. 2.0 μm
39. The wavelength of light used and the numerical aperture governs
A. Illumination
B. Resolution
C. Magnification
D. Size of the field
E. All of the choices are correct
40. _____ has the same optical qualities as glass and thus prevents refractive loss of light as it passes from the
slide to the objective lens.
A. The scanning objective
B. The oil objective
C. The slide
D. Immersion oil
E. The ocular
41. The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black
background is
A. Bright-field
B. Dark-field
C. Phase-contrast
D. Fluorescence
E. Electron
42. Which type of microscope shows cells against a bright background and also shows intracellular structures
of unstained cells based on their varying densities?
A. Bright-field
B. Dark-field
C. Phase-contrast
D. Differential interference
E. Electron
43. Which type of microscope is the most widely used and shows cells against a bright background?
A. Bright-field
B. Dark-field
C. Phase-contrast
D. Fluorescence
E. Electron
44. All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except
A. Uses electrons to produce a specimen image
B. Type of compound microscope
C. Requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluoresce in
D. Commonly used to diagnose certain infections
E. Requires an ultraviolet radiation source
45. A confocal scanning optical microscope
A. Uses ultraviolet light to form a specimen image
B. Shows three-dimensional cell images from the cell surface to the middle of the cell
C. Produces specimen images on electron micrographs
D. Uses dyes that emit visible light when bombarded by ultraviolet rays
E. Requires specimens to be stained
46. A confocal scanning optical microscope
A. Uses a laser beam of light to form a specimen image
B. Shows only the surface of the specimen
C. Produces specimen images on electron micrographs
D. Uses dyes that emit visible light when bombarded by ultraviolet rays
E. Requires specimens to be stained
47. Which type of microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image?
A. Bright-field
B. Dark-field
C. Phase-contrast
D. Fluorescence
E. Electron
48. Which type of microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification?
A. Bright-field
B. Dark-field
C. Phase-contrast
D. Fluorescence
E. Electron
49. Which type of microscope cannot image live specimens?
A. Bright-field
B. Phase-contrast
C. Dark-field
D. Tunneling electron
E. Differential interference
50. Which type of microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and
forth over it?
A. Fluorescence
B. Differential interference contrast
C. Scanning electron
D. Transmission electron
E. Phase-contrast
51. The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is
A. Hanging drop
B. Fixed stained smear
C. Gram stain
D. Negative stain
E. Flagellar stain
52. The purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to
A. Kill them
B. Secure them to the slide
C. Enlarge the cells
D. Add contrast in order to see them better
E. See motility
53. The gram staining procedure is best described as a __staining technique.
A. acid fast or Ziehl-Neelson
B. differential
C. capsule
D. Schaefer-Fulton
54. What do the Gram stain, acid-fast stain and endospore stain have in common?
A. Used on a wet mount of the specimen
B. Use heat to force the dye into cell structures
C. Outcome based on cell wall differences
D. Use a negative stain technique
E. Are differential stains
55. Basic dyes are
A. Attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells
B. Anionic
C. Used in negative staining
D. Repelled by cells
E. Dyes such as India ink and nigrosin
56. A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler’s methylene blue.
All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of
A. Negative staining
B. Using an acidic dye
C. Simple staining
D. Using the acid-fast stain
E. Capsule staining
57. Matching.
1.) 1 Km A.) 10-2 cm
2.) 1 mm B.) 100 mm
3.) 10 cm C.) 10-6 m
4.) 1 m D.) 1000 m
Ans:1. D 2. A 3. B 4. C
58. Who invented the first crude microscope by grinding glass?
A. Redi
B. Lister
C. Schultz & Schwann
D. Leeuwenhoek
59. Which type of media would be the best choice when shipping a sample of bacteria to a laboratory to be
tested from a satellite office site.
A. Transport
B. EMB
C. Blood
D. thioglycollate
60. The Gram staining procedure is best described as a __staining technique.
A. Acid fast or Ziehl-Neelson
B. Differential
C. Capsule
D. Schaefer-Fulton
61. The procedures for culturing a microorganism require the use of a microscope.
True False
62. A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium.
True False
63. Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media.
True False
64. A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of certain microbes in order to
facilitate the growth of other microbes.
True False
65. One colony typically develops from the growth of several parent bacterial cells.
True False
66. Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures.
True False
67. Bacterial cultures are easily identified from their microscopic appearance.
True False
68. Normal incubation temperatures range from 30° to 60° C.
True False
69. The bending of light rays as they pass form one medium to another is called refraction.
True False
70. The real image is the reverse of the actual specimen.
True False
71. A differential interference contrast microscope uses dyes to give colored three-dimensional images.
True False
72. Fixed smears of specimens are required in order to perform the Gram stain and endospore stain on the
specimens.
True False
73. At the end of the Gram stain, gram positive bacteria will be seen as pink cells.
True False
ch03 Key
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. D
13. E
14. D
15. A
16. D
17. D
18. A
19. D
20. A
21. C
22. E
23. C
24. D
25. C
26. C
27. B
28. E
29. C
30. E
31. D
32. B
33. B
34. E
35. E
36. C
37. A
38. C
39. B
40. D
41. B
42. C
43. A
44. A
45. B
46. A
47. E
48. E
49. D
50. C
51. A
52. D
53. B
54. C
55. A
56. C
57.
58. D
59. A
60. B
61. FALSE
62. TRUE
63. TRUE
64. TRUE
65. FALSE
66. FALSE
67. FALSE
68. FALSE
69. TRUE
70. FALSE
71. FALSE
72. TRUE
73. FALSE
ch03 Summary
Category # of Questions
Cowan – Chapter 03 73
Learning Objective: 3.01 Explain what the 5 Is mean and what each step entails. 17
Learning Objective: 3.02 Name & define the 3 ways to categorize media. 1
Learning Objective: 3.02 Name and define the 3 ways to categorize media. 4
Learning Objective: 3.03 Provide examples for each of the 3 categories of media. 16
Learning Objective: 3.04 Convert among different lengths within the metric system. 2
Learning Objective: 3.05 Describe the earliest microscopes. 2
Learning Objective: 3.06 List & describe the 3 elements of good microscopy. 1
Learning Objective: 3.06 List and describe the 3 elements of good microscopy. 4
Learning Objective: 3.07 Differentiate between the principles of light and electron microscopy. 25
Learning Objective: 3.08 Name the 2 main categories of stains. 2
Learning Objective: 3.09 Give examples of a simple 1
Learning Objective: 3.09 Give examples of simple 5
Learning Objective: and special stain. 6
Learning Objective: differential 6

 

ch04
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a prokaryote?
A. It’s DNA is not encased in a membrane
B. It has a cell wall made of peptidoglycans or other distinct chemicals
C. It does not have membrane-bound organelles
D. Its DNA is wrapped around his tones
E. All of these are characteristics of prokaryotes
2. The two functions of bacterial appendages are
A. Attachment and protection
B. Attachment and motility
C. Motility and slime production
D. Energy reactions and synthesis
E. Protection and motility
3. Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages except
A. Flagella
B. Cilia
C. Fimbriae
D. Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
E. Sex pili
4. Spirochetes have a twisting and flexing locomotion due to appendages called
A. Flagella
B. Cilia
C. Fimbriae
D. Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
E. Sex pili
5. The basal body of a flagellum is anchored into the
A. Hook
B. Outer membrane
C. Cell wall
D. Peptidoglycan layer
E. Cell membrane
6. The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is
A. Amphitrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Lophotrichous
D. Monotrichous
E. Peritrichous
7. The term that refers to the presence of a tuft of flagella emerging from the same site is
A. Amphitrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Lophotrichous
D. Monotrichous
E. Peritrichous
8. The term that refers to flagella at both poles is
A. Amphitrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Lophotrichous
D. Monotrichous
E. Peritrichous
9. Chemo taxis refers to the ability to
A. Move in response to light
B. Move in response to a chemical
C. Not move in response to a chemical
D. Transport desired molecules into cell
E. None of the choices are correct
10. A nutrient binds to receptors near the basal body. This will result in
A. Clockwise rotation of flagella
B. Counter clockwise rotation of flagella
C. Inhibition of flagella rotation
D. Numerous tumbles
E. None of the choices are correct
11. A bacterial cell exhibiting chemo taxis probably has
A. Fimbriae
B. A capsule
C. Thylakoids
D. Flagella
E. Met achromatic granules
12. The prokaryotic flagellum has three parts in the order from cytoplasm to external environment
A. Filament, hook, basal body
B. Filament, basal body, hook
C. Basal body, hook, filament
D. Hook, basal body, filament
E. Basal body, filament, hook
13. Movement of a cell toward a chemical stimulus is termed
A. Photo taxis
B. Taxis
C. Chemotaxis
D. Tumble
E. None of the choices are correct
14. The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called
A. Flagella
B. Cilia
C. Fimbriae
D. Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
E. Sex pili
15. The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called
A. Flagella
B. Cilia
C. Fimbriae
D. Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
E. Sex pili
16. Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized?
A. Slime layer
B. Fimbriae
C. Cell membrane
D. Capsule
E. All of the choices are correct
17. The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell’s
A. Ribosomes
B. Inclusions
C. Cell wall
D. Cell membrane
E. Flagella
18. Which order below reflects the correct procedure for Gram staining?
A. Alcohol/acetone-Crystal violet-Safranin-Iodine
B. Crystal violet-Alcohol/acetone-Iodine-Safranin
C. Crystal violet-Iodine-Alcohol/acetone-Safranin
D. Iodine-Safranin-Crystal violet-Alcohol/acetone
E. Alcohol/acetone-Safranin-Crystal violet-Iodine
19. The cell _____ can be composed of three layers: the membrane, the cell wall and the outer
membrane.
A. Glycocalyx
B. Envelope
C. Pathogenic package
D. Slime coat
E. None of the choices are correct
20. During the Gram stain, gram _____ cells decolorize when the alcohol is applied.
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Both positive and negative
D. Neither positive nor negative
21. If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that
would prevent the cells from rupturing is the
A. Endospore
B. Cell wall
C. Cell membrane
D. Capsule
E. Slime layer
22. Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial
A. Cell walls
B. Cell membranes
C. Capsules
D. Slime layers
E. Inclusions
23. A prokaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and
lipoteichoic acid is
A. Gram negative
B. Gram positive
C. Archaea
D. Spheroplast
E. Acid fast
24. A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is
A. Mycobacterium
B. Mycoplasma
C. Streptococcus
D. Corynebacterium
E. Salmonella
25. The difference in cell wall structure of Mycobacterium and Nocardia compared to the typical gram
positive bacterial cell wall structure is
A. More peptidoglycan
B. Predominance of unique, waxy, lipids
C. Easily decolorized
D. Presence of lipopolysaccharide
E. All of the choices are correct
26. The periplasmic space is
A. Larger in gram positive bacteria
B. Made up of lipopolysaccharides and phospholipids
C. An important reaction site for substances entering and leaving the cell
D. Where peptidoglycan is located
E. Absent in gram negative bacteria
27. The _____ stain is used to stain and differentiate Mycobacterium and Nocardia from other bacteria.
A. Acid fast
B. Methylene blue
C. Gram
D. Negative
E. Basic
28. _____ is a macromolecule containing alternating N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid crosslinked
by short peptide fragments.
A. My colic acid
B. Outer membrane protein
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Lysozyme
E. None of the choices are correct
29. The enzyme _____, that is found in tears and saliva, can hydrolyze the bonds in the glycan chains of
certain bacterial cell walls.
A. Penicillinase
B. Lysozyme
C. Peptidase
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
30. Lysozyme is most effective against
A. Gram negative organisms
B. Gram positive organisms
C. Mycoplasmas
D. Cyanobacteria
E. Archea
31. The fragile cell produced when gram positive bacteria are exposed to lysozyme or penicillin is a/an
A. Protoplast
B. Mycoplasma
C. Spheroplast
D. Glycocalyx
E. Glycan
32. All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease except
the
A. Inclusions
B. Fimbriae
C. Capsule
D. Slime layer
E. Outer membrane of gram negative cell walls
33. Which of the following does not pertain to endotoxins?
A. Are specific bacterial cell wall lipids
B. Can stimulate fever in the human body
C. Can cause septic shock in the human body
D. Involved in typhoid fever and some meningitis cases
E. Found in acid fast bacterial cell walls
34. Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell wall component of
A. Gram negative bacteria
B. Gram positive bacteria
C. Acid fast bacteria
D. Mycoplasmas
E. Protoplasts
35. Which of the following, pertaining to prokaryotic cell membranes is mismatched?
A. Contain photosynthetic pigments – cyanobacteria
B. Sterols present – mycoplasmas
C. Form a bilayer – phospholipids
D. Unique hydrocarbon present – cyano bacteria
E. Function – regulates transport of nutrients and wastes
36. The site/s for most ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells is/are the
A. Ribosomes
B. Mitochondria
C. Cell wall
D. Inclusions
E. Cell membrane
37. Gram negative organisms
A. Are more susceptible to antibiotics than gram positive organisms
B. Are less susceptible to antibiotics than gram positive organisms
C. Stain purple in the gram stain
D. Encompass all pathogens
E. None of the choices are correct
38. Which of the following is not a function of a prokaryote cell membrane?
A. Transport
B. Secretion