Microbiology A Human Perspective 6th Edition by Eugene Nester – Test Bank

 

 

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Sample Test

Chapter 03

Microscopy and Cell Structure

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1.    Eukaryotic cells are
A.less complex than prokaryotic cells.
B. members of the domains Bacteria and Archaea.
C. defined by the presence of a membrane bound nucleus.
D. able to reproduce more rapidly than prokaryotes.
E. less complex than prokaryotic cells, members of the domains Bacteria and Archaea AND able to reproduce more rapidly than prokaryotes.

 

2.    The two magnifying lenses found in a light microscope are the
A.basic and transverse.
B. small and large.
C. ocular and objective.
D. simple and phase.

 

3.    The resolving power of a microscope is described as the ability of the microscope to
A.separate clearly two objects that are very close together.
B. magnify an object.
C. separate the colors of an organism’s internal structure.
D. see structures at various depths in a tissue.

 

4.    In viewing a microscopic specimen, oil is used to
A.increase the refraction.
B. decrease the refraction.
C. increase the reflection.
D. increase the resolution.
E. decrease the refraction AND increase the resolution.

 

 

5.    The use of oil with certain high power objective lenses increases
A.magnification.
B. the amount of light that enters the objective lens.
C. resolution.
D. contrast.
E. All of the choices are correct.

 

6.    If everything else is equal, the best way to observe more details in a microscopic specimen is to
A.increase resolution.
B. increase magnification.

 

7.    The microscope which allows the specimen to appear 3-dimensional is the
A.phase contrast microscope.
B. interference microscope.
C. fluorescence microscope.
D. dark-field microscope.

 

8.    Which of the following microscope types would be least useful in viewing unstained living cells?
A.phase contrast
B. interference
C. bright-field
D. dark-field

 

9.    Electron microscopes differ from light microscopes in that
A.electrons replace light.
B. electromagnets replace glass lenses.
C. resolution is higher.
D. magnification is higher.
E. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

10.  Specimens can be observed at the atomic level using a(n)
A.scanning electron microscope.
B. transmission electron microscope.
C. atomic force microscope.
D. All of the choices are correct.
E. None of the choices is correct.

 

11.  Individual atoms on the surface of prepared samples can be observed by using the
A.phase contrast microscope.
B. scanning electron microscope.
C. dark-field microscope.
D. atomic force microscope.

 

12.  Basic dyes
A.have negative charges.
B. have positive charges.
C. are electrically neutral.
D. contain both positively and negatively charged particles.

 

13.  Which of the following stains is/are considered differential?
A.capsule stain.
B. flagella stain.
C. acid fast stain.
D. Gram stain.
E. acid fast stain AND Gram stain.

 

14.  The Gram stain and the endospore stain both use
A.basic dyes.
B. acidic dyes.
C. safranin.
D. methylene blue.
E. basic dyes AND safranin.

 

 

15.  The order of reagents in the Gram stain reaction are
A.safranin, alcohol, methylene blue, iodine.
B. crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin.
C. methylene blue, alcohol, safranin.
D. crystal violet, alcohol, iodine, safranin.

 

16.  Which may result in Gram-positive bacteria appearing to be Gram-negative?
A.decolorizing too long
B. decolorizing too short
C. using old cultures
D. using young cultures
E. decolorizing too long AND using old cultures

 

17.  The major criteria used in placing bacteria into different groups is based on differences in
A.cell wall structure.
B. cell membrane permeability.
C. presence or absence of flagella.
D. detergent susceptibility.

 

18.  In a basic staining procedure, which is the correct order?
A.fix, smear, stain
B. smear, fix, stain
C. fix, stain, decolorize
D. smear, decolorize, stain

 

19.  The acid-fast stain
A.reflects differences in cytoplasmic membrane structure.
B. is useful for distinguishing a small group of organisms, including Mycobacterium.
C. uses crystal violet and safranin.
D. uses carbolfuchsin and methylene blue.
E. is useful for distinguishing a small group of organisms, including Mycobacterium AND uses carbolfuchsin and methylene blue.

 

 

20.  Capsules
A.take up stain well.
B. may correlate with an organism’s ability to cause disease.
C. are typically “negatively” stained.
D. are stained as a wet mount.
E. may correlate with an organism’s ability to cause disease, are typically “negatively” stained AND are stained as a wet mount.

 

21.  The endospore stain
A.is applicable to only a few groups of bacteria.
B. usually shows the spores as green structures among a background of pink cells.
C. uses crystal violet as the primary stain.
D. is an example of a negative stain.
E. is applicable to only a few groups of bacteria AND usually shows the spores as green structures among a background of pink cells.

 

22.  Which fluorescent stain would be useful for distinguishing between dead and living bacteria?
A.acridine orange
B. auramine
C. rhodamine
D. CTC

 

23.  Immunofluorescence
A.uses fluorescently tagged molecules.
B. makes use of the specificity in binding of antibodies.
C. utilizes acridine orange.
D. would require a special UV microscope.
E. uses fluorescently tagged molecules, makes use of the specificity in binding of antibodies AND would require a special UV microscope.

 

 

24.  Which term(s) refer(s) to bacterial morphology?
A.Bacillus
B. coccus
C. bacillus
D. polyhedral
E. coccus AND bacillus

 

25.  Which is not true of the cytoplasmic membrane?
A.It defines the boundaries of the cell.
B. It is a semipermeable barrier.
C. It consists mainly of a fixed, static phospholipid bilayer.
D. It uses proteins as selective gates and sensors.
E. All of the choices are true.

 

26.  Which is true of simple diffusion of water?
A.Water usually enters a cell and produces a tremendous osmotic pressure.
B. Water usually leaves the cell and produces negative osmotic pressure.
C. Water tends to enter and leave the cell equally, resulting in no pressure in the cell.
D. The diffusion ultimately relies on the selectively permeable nature of the cell membrane.
E. Water usually enters a cell and produces a tremendous osmotic pressure AND the diffusion ultimately relies on the selectively permeable nature of the cell membrane.

 

27.  The cytoplasmic membrane of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes functions to
A.form endoplasmic reticulum.
B. produce energy.
C. regulate movement of molecules which enter and leave the cell.
D. form lysosomes and golgi apparatus.

 

 

28.  The proteins of bacteria that are involved in the movement of small molecules into the cell, are called
A.transport proteins.
B. permeases.
C. carriers.
D. peptidases.
E. transport proteins, permeases AND carriers.

 

29.  Most solutes pass through the cytoplasmic membrane via
A.osmosis.
B. diffusion.
C. transport proteins.
D. secretion.

 

30.  Facilitated diffusion and active transport
A.both transport molecules into or out of a cell.
B. are both not very specific as to which molecules are transported.
C. both require a concentration gradient to function.
D. both require an expenditure of energy in order to transport the molecules.
E. both require a concentration gradient to function AND both require an expenditure of energy in order to transport the molecules.

 

31.  The macromolecule found in the cell walls of all bacteria is
A.diaminopimelic acid.
B. teichoic acid.
C. peptidoglycan.
D. glycocalyx.

 

 

32.  Which is (are) true concerning the cell wall of prokaryotes?
A.It determines the shape of the bacteria.
B. It prevents the bacteria from bursting.
C. It contains peptidoglycan.
D. It may be targeted by antimicrobials.
E. All of the choices are true.

 

33.  Which amino acid(s) is/are found only in the cell walls of bacteria?
A.glycerol
B. L-form of glycine
C. diaminopimelic acid
D. L-form of methionine
E. L-form of glycine AND L-form of methionine

 

34.  The cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria
A.contains a thin layer of peptidoglycan.
B. contains a thick layer of peptidoglycan.
C. is, due to its thickness, an excellent barrier to most molecules.
D. contains an outer membrane containing LPS.
E. contains a thin layer of peptidoglycan AND contains an outer membrane containing LPS.

 

35.  Which molecules are associated with the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria?
A.peptidoglycan
B. D-form amino acids
C. teichoic acids
D. LPS
E. peptidoglycan, D-form amino acids AND teichoic acids.

 

 

36.  The cell wall of Gram-negative organisms
A.has a thick peptidoglycan layer.
B. has a thin peptidoglycan layer.
C. is more permeable to various molecules than the Gram-positive cell wall.
D. is characterized by an outer membrane containing LPS.
E. has a thin peptidoglycan layer AND is characterized by an outer membrane containing LPS.

 

37.  Endotoxin
A.consists of LPS.
B. determines bacterial shape.
C. may have different effects depending on the specific bacterial source.
D. is toxic due to the effects of the peptide side chains.
E. determines bacterial shape, may have different effects depending on the specific bacterial source AND is toxic due to the effects of the peptide side chains.

 

38.  Penicillin would be most effective against
A.non-growing bacteria.
B. growing bacteria.
C. Gram-positive bacteria.
D. Gram-negative bacteria.
E. growing bacteria AND Gram-positive bacteria.

 

39.  Peptidoglycan
A.may be digested by penicillin.
B. consists of a long string of NAG coupled to a long string of NAM.
C. may be digested by lysozyme.
D. is used to construct a spheroplast.

 

 

40.  Which of the following bacteria lack a cell wall?
A.Treponema pallidum
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

 

41.  The capsule
A.may be used for protection.
B. may be used to help the bacteria adhere to surfaces.
C. may be involved in movement.
D. may be involved in energy production.
E. may be used for protection AND may be used to help the bacteria adhere to surfaces.

 

42.  The structures used for motility in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes are
A.cilia.
B. flagella.
C. pili.
D. fimbriae.

 

43.  Movement in bacteria
A.is directly to or away from a stimulus.
B. relies on the beating of cilia.
C. is often referred to as run and tumble.
D. may involve pili.
E. is often referred to as run and tumble AND may involve pili.

 

44.  Extrachromasomal DNA is found in ____________________________.
A.mitochondria
B. plasmids
C. nucleoid
D. nucleoli
E. mitochondria AND plasmids

 

 

45.  Endospores are
A.a dormant cell type.
B. a form of reproduction.
C. an obligate intracellular parasite.
D. sensitive to damaging environmental conditions.

 

46.  Eukaryotic cells
A.are more obviously compartmentalized than prokaryotes.
B. usually have a single circular supercoiled piece of DNA.
C. contain peptidoglycan in the cell wall.
D. have the same size ribosomes as prokaryotes.
E. usually have a single circular supercoiled piece of DNA AND contain peptidoglycan in the cell wall.

 

47.  The membranes of eukaryotes and mycoplasma
A.contain peptidoglycan.
B. contain sterols for “strength”.
C. contain ergosterol.
D. are fixed static structures.

 

48.  Phagocytosis
A.is the ingestion of particles and may be performed by animal cells.
B. is the ingestion of particles and may be performed by bacteria.
C. is the secretion of proteins.
D. is the formation of a lysosome.
E. is the ingestion of particles and may be performed by bacteria AND is the formation of a lysosome.

 

 

49.  The cytoskeleton
A.is a dynamic structure composed of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments.
B. is a static structure that gives a rigid shape to the cell.
C. consists of flagella and cilia that are internalized.
D. is not necessary for movement or reproduction.
E. is a static structure that gives a rigid shape to the cell, consists of flagella and cilia that are internalized AND is not necessary for movement or reproduction.

 

50.  The nucleus
A.is a double membrane sac containing DNA and is found in eukaryotes.
B. is a single phospholipid membrane sac containing prokaryotic DNA.
C. is a smaller structure contained within the eukaryotic nucleolus.
D. cannot transport molecules to the cytoplasm due to the double membrane barrier.

 

51.  Which is not true of mitochondria and chloroplasts?
A.They are found in all organisms.
B. They contain DNA and 70S ribosomes.
C. They are capable of performing protein synthesis.
D. They generate ATP.

 

52.  An advantage of the smaller size of prokaryotes, compared to eukaryotes, is
A.high surface area relative to low cell volume.
B. more rapid growth rates.
C. compartmentalization of cellular processes in membrane-bound organelles.
D. predators, parasites, and competitors constantly surround them.
E. high surface area relative to low cell volume AND more rapid growth rates.

 

 

 

 

Matching Questions

 

53.  Which of the following best matches the description:

1. sterols	eukaryote	7
2. endoplasmic reticulum	prokaryote and eukaryote	3
3. flagella	eukaryote	2
4. histones	prokaryote	9
5. cytoskeleton	eukaryote	6
6. golgi apparatus	eukaryote	5
7. mitochondria	eukaryote	4
8. phagocytosis	eukaryote	8
9. pili	prokaryote and eukaryote	1

 

 

True / False Questions

54.  Bacillus and Clostridium are medically relevant groups of bacteria that characteristically stain acid fast.
FALSE

 

55.  LPS is found in the outer membrane of Gram positive bacteria.
FALSE

 

56.  Drugs that target prokaryotic protein synthesis would have no effect on eukaryotic protein synthesis.
FALSE

 

57.  Penicillin affects the synthesis of phospholipids, thereby producing weak membranes and lysis of the bacteria.
FALSE

 

58.  Endospores are involved in bacterial reproduction.
FALSE

 

 

59.  Lysosomes are bags of digestive enzymes found in prokaryotic cells.
FALSE

 

60.  Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis.
FALSE

 

61.  Mitochondria and chloroplasts are thought to have once been free living bacteria that invaded another cell.
TRUE

 

62.  Cilia and flagella project from the cell and are not covered by cytoplasmic membrane.
FALSE

 

63.  Prokaryotes may ingest particles via phagocytosis.
FALSE

 

 

Essay Questions

64.  Many drugs that target prokaryotic protein synthesis also adversely affect eukaryotic cells. Explain.

It is possible for drugs used to affect prokaryotic protein synthesis to also affect the functioning of eukaryotic cells. Many of these drugs work by interfering with ribosome function. Problems may arise if the drug keys on parts of the ribosome that are not quite so unique. In particular, a problem may arise with the mitochondrial ribosome. This ribosome is very similar to that of the prokaryotic ribosome. Therefore, the drug could interfere not only with prokaryotic protein synthesis but also with mitochondrial protein synthesis and mitochondrial function.

 

 

65.  Explain why it is thought that mitochondria and chloroplasts are the remains of intracellular parasites.

It is now widely thought that the mitochondria and chloroplasts were free-living organisms at some point in the past. Many of the characteristics of these organelles suggest a free-living past. In particular these organelles: are about the size of a bacterium, have their own DNA, have their own ribosomes which resemble prokaryotic ribosomes, divide separately from the nucleus, produce their own proteins, and have a double-walled lipid membrane. The mitochondria may have come from purple bacteria, the chloroplasts from cyanobacteria, and the nucleocytoplasm from Archaea.

 

66.  What would happen if the cytoskeleton were to be frozen in place?

The cytoskeleton is a meshwork of three main types of fibers that fills the interior of the eukaryotic cell. This skeleton is a very dynamic structure being constantly reformed. If it were frozen in place, then the shape of the cell would be “fixed”. The cell would probably not be able to replicate because it would not be able to move the DNA about, nor split the cell in two. The cell would not be able to move particularly through the use of pseudopodia. Movement of material within the cell would also be somewhat limited.

 

Chapter 04

Dynamics of Prokaryotic Growth

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1.    All the bacterial cells that result from the replication of a single organism are said to be a
A.population.
B. pure culture.
C. lag culture.
D. mutant culture.

 

2.    The scientist that contributed most to the development of pure culture techniques was
A.Alexander Fleming.
B. Louis Pasteur.
C. Edward Jenner.
D. Robert Koch.

 

3.    The solidifying agent used most successfully in bacterial nutrient media is
A.gelatin.
B. peptone.
C. agar.
D. starch.

 

4.    Prokaryotic cells divide by a process known as
A.conjugation.
B. mitosis.
C. binary fusion.
D. binary fission.

 

 

5.    In nature, bacteria
A.often grow in close association with many other kinds of organisms.
B. may remain in a prolonged exponential phase.
C. frequently synthesize structures such as slime layers.
D. may adhere to surfaces by means of pili and slime layers.
E. All of the choices are correct.

 

6.    Biofilms
A.are a haphazard mixture of bacteria.
B. are a polysaccharide-encased community of microorganisms.
C. may enhance bioremediation efforts.
D. may protect organisms against harmful chemicals
E. are a polysaccharide-encased community of microorganisms, may enhance bioremediation efforts AND may protect organisms against harmful chemicals.

 

7.    Biofilms
A.are polysaccharide-encased prokaryote communities that are attached to surfaces.
B. are organized structures that contain open channels for passage of nutrients and water.
C. contribute to diseases like tooth decay.
D. can be exploited for bioremediation.
E. All of the choices are correct.

 

8.    The simplest technique for isolating bacteria in growth media is referred to as the
A.pour plate method.
B. streak plate method.
C. serial dilution method.
D. MPN method.

 

 

9.    Bacteria may be stored
A.on a slant in the refrigerator.
B. frozen in glycerol solution.
C. lyophilized.
D. in broth at 37°C.
E. on a slant in the refrigerator, frozen in glycerol solution AND lyophilized.

 

10.  In the growth curve of a bacteria population, the bacteria are rapidly increasing in number in the
A.lag phase.
B. exponential (log) phase.
C. stationary phase.
D. decline phase.
E. boomer phase.

 

11.  During which phase of growth are bacteria most susceptible to antibiotics?
A.lag
B. stationary
C. exponential (log)
D. decline

 

12.  When doing experiments with bacteria
A.it is usually not necessary to standardize which stage of growth is used.
B. it is best to use colonies as all the bacteria in a colony are at the same stage of growth.
C. it is best to use bacteria from the same stage of growth.
D. the age of the bacteria is not important.

 

13.  During which phase of the bacterial growth curve does the total number of viable cells decline?
A.stationary
B. lag
C. exponential
D. death

 

 

14.  The lag phase of the bacterial growth curve is marked by
A.a decrease in cell mass.
B. dormant, metabolically inactive cells.
C. metabolically active cells.
D. vigorously dividing cells.

 

15.  Late log phase of the bacterial growth curve
A.is marked by the production of primary metabolites.
B. is marked by the production of secondary metabolites.
C. is a transition into the death phase.
D. shows a decline in cell numbers.

 

16.  During which phase of the bacterial growth curve does a bacterial population become much more resistant to harmful conditions?
A.lag phase
B. exponential phase
C. stationary phase
D. late log phase

 

17.  A urine sample with more than 100,000 organisms is considered indicative of infection. If a urine sample containing 5,000 bacteria with a generation time of 30 minutes, sits for 3 hours before finally being assayed, how many bacteria will then be present?
A.10,000
B. 64,000
C. 100,000
D. 320,000

 

 

18.  A pure culture in exponential growth phase has a bacterial concentration of 6.4 x 10⁸ cells/ml. If the bacterium has a generation time of 1 h, how long ago was the cell concentration 8.0 x 10⁷ cells/ml?
A.1 h
B. 2 h
C. 3 h
D. 4 h

 

19.  In a rapidly multiplying bacterial population, cell numbers increase
A.arithmetically.
B. logarithmically.
C. geometrically.
D. indirectly.

 

20.  The speed of enzymatic reactions approximately doubles for each
A.5° C rise in temperature.
B. 10° C rise in temperature.
C. 20° C rise in temperature.
D. 30° C rise in temperature.

 

21.  Generally the proteins of thermophiles
A.resist denaturation.
B. react more efficiently with DNA.
C. are easily denatured.
D. have a particular amino acid sequence that restricts bond formation.
E. are easily denatured AND have a particular amino acid sequence that restricts bond formation.

 

22.  A hot tub would most likely contain
A.psychrophiles.
B. partiers.
C. thermophiles.
D. mesophiles.

 

 

23.  The optimal temperature for most human pathogens might be expected to range from
A.35-40°C.
B. 20-45°C.
C. 15-25°C.
D. 93-98.6°C.

 

24.  Bacteria on fish caught in the Arctic Ocean would
A.be psychrophiles.
B. be mesophiles.
C. continue to grow while the fish is in the refrigerator.
D. not grow very well in the refrigerator.
E. be psychrophiles AND continue to grow while the fish is in the refrigerator.

 

25.  Mycobacterium leprae is typically found infecting the ears, toes and fingers of its host due to its
A.requirement for well-oxygenated blood.
B. easy access to those parts.
C. need for cooler temperatures.
D. long incubation period.

 

26.  Organisms that require gaseous oxygen for metabolism are referred to as
A.facultative aerobes.
B. obligate aerobes.
C. facultative anaerobes.
D. microaerophiles.

 

27.  Which of the following is/are obligate aerobes?
A.Clostridium botulinum
B. Escherichia coli
C. Micrococcus luteus
D. Helicobacter pylori

 

 

28.  Organisms that are indifferent to the presence of oxygen and do not use it are
A.aerotolerant anaerobes.
B. facultative anaerobes.
C. obligate aerobes.
D. microaerophiles.

 

29.  The enzymes that deal with toxic oxygen-containing molecules is/are
A.glycolase.
B. superoxide dismutase.
C. catalase.
D. hydrogen peroxidase.
E. superoxide dismutase AND catalase.

 

30.  Shake tubes are used to determine the
A.pH requirements for bacterial growth.
B. temperature requirements for bacterial growth.
C. oxygen requirements for bacterial growth.
D. salt requirements for bacterial growth.

 

31.  The optimum pH for growth of most species of bacteria is
A.pH 5.
B. pH 7.
C. pH 9.
D. pH 6.

 

32.  High concentrations of salt and sugar in foods
A.are useful in preserving the food.
B. tend to draw water out of a cell.
C. tend to force water into a cell, causing plasmolysis.
D. have no effect on water availability.
E. are useful in preserving the food AND tend to draw water out of a cell.

 

 

33.  Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur may be considered
A.minor elements.
B. major elements.
C. neutral elements.
D. acidic elements.

 

34.  Trace elements
A.include zinc, copper and manganese.
B. are required in large amounts.
C. may be needed for enzyme function.
D. are involved in maintaining pH in the cell.
E. include zinc, copper and manganese AND may be needed for enzyme function.

 

35.  Growth factors are
A.compounds that must be synthesized by the organism.
B. compounds that must be provided to the organism.
C. physical factors such as temperature.
D. inorganic molecules.