Medical Emergencies In the Dental Office 6th Edition by Stanley F. Malamed – Test Bank

 

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Sample Test

Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6^th Edition

 

Test Bank

 

Chapter 3: Preparation

 

           MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1.   The author of the text recommends that each dentist:

a.	purchase a stock, commercially available emergency kit
b.	select items for the emergency kit based on that doctor’s training in emergency medicine
c.	rely upon physicians who are also dental patients for advice concerning contents of an emergency kit
d.	rely upon the local EMS team for provision of emergency medications

 

 

2.   The new wonder drug, propothiopentabarbitaldiazicon, which successfully reverses any and all emergency situations that may ever occur, is marketed in a 1-mL ampule as 80 mg/mL. What is the dose of this drug for a patient 25 years of age?

a.	10 mg
b.	20 mg
c.	40 mg
d.	80 mg
e.	160 mg

 

 

3.   The new wonder drug, propothiopentabarbitaldiazicon, which successfully reverses any and all emergency situations that may ever occur, is marketed in a 1-mL ampule as 80 mg/mL. What is the dose of this drug for a patient 6 months of age?

a.	10 mg
b.	20 mg
c.	40 mg
d.	80 mg
e.	160 mg

 

 

4.   Which of the following sites for injection of emergency drugs provides the most effective and rapid uptake?

a.	intramuscular route into the anterolateral aspect of the thigh

 

b.	intramuscular route into the mid-deltoid region of the upper arm
c.	intramuscular route into the upper outer quadrant of the gluteal region
d.	intralingual injection into the body of the tongue

 

 

5.   The author recommends that only __________ be available in a preloaded syringe for an emergency kit in a typical dental office.

a.	hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef)
b.	epinephrine
c.	diazepam (Valium)
d.	diphenhydramine

 

 

6.   Which of the following is considered to be an essential (module 1) emergency drug?

a.	anticonvulsant
b.	antihypertensive
c.	histamine-blocker
d.	opioid antagonist
e.	aromatic ammonia

 

 

7.   The single most important step in the management of all emergency situations, without exception, is:

a.	administration of oxygen
b.	summoning EMS
c.	administration of aromatic ammonia
d.	basic life support, as needed
e.	none of the above

 

 

8.   What fraction of an adult emergency drug dose should be administered to an 8-month-old male?

a.	10% of the adult dose
b.	25% of the adult dose
c.	50% of the adult dose
d.	75% of the adult dose
e.	100% of the adult dose

 

 

9.   What fraction of an adult emergency drug dose should be administered to an 8-year-old female?

a.	10% of the adult dose
b.	25% of the adult dose
c.	50% of the adult dose
d.	75% of the adult dose
e.	100% of the adult dose

 

 

10.                The proprietary name for epinephrine is:

a.	Valium
b.	Vasoxyl
c.	Ventolin
d.	Nitro-stat
e.	not listed

 

 

11.                The proprietary name for albuterol is:

a.	Solu-Cortef
b.	Wyamine
c.	Ventolin
d.	Nitro-stat
e.	not listed

 

 

12.                Which of the following is an antidotal drug for the reversal of a benzodiazepine-induced overdose?

a.	flumazenil
b.	aromatic ammonia
c.	meperidine
d.	oxygen
e.	naloxone

 

 

13.                When injectable drugs are unavailable, which of the following basic emergency drugs may be administered sublingually or transmucosally to manage life-threatening elevations in blood pressure?

a.	diazoxide (Hyperstat)
b.	propranolol (Inderal)
c.	nifedipine (Procardia)
d.	nitroglycerin (Nitrolingual spray)
e.	metoprolol (Lopressor)

 

Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6^th Edition

 

Test Bank

 

Chapter 4: Medicolegal Considerations

 

           MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1.   Which of the following dental scenarios would most likely lead to the largest legal judgment?

a.	temporary paresthesia
b.	broken needle
c.	permanent cosmetic injury
d.	brain damage from improperly administered CPR during cardiac arrest

 

 

2.   Plantiffs’ attorneys are usually hired on a ______________ basis, while defense attorneys are hired on a ___________ basis.

a.	contingency fee; hourly
b.	contingency fee; contingency fee
c.	hourly; contingency fee
d.	hourly; hourly

 

 

3.   The dentist must file an answer to a complaint or summons within _____ or risk a default judgment.

a.	24 hours
b.	7 days
c.	2 weeks
d.	30 days

 

 

4.   After the dentist’s attorney has filed an answer to a complaint, a process known as __________ begins.

a.	a trial
b.	discovery
c.	a deposition
d.	a tort

 

 

5.   The Latin phrase res ipsa loquitur means:

a.	the captain of the ship
b.	the thing speaks for itself
c.	relating to criminal law
d.	relating to civil law

 

 

6.   According to the text:

a.	negligence is doing something that an ordinary prudent dentist would not do under the same or similar circumstances
b.	negligence and malpractice are not to be used synonymously in lawsuits against health care providers
c.	negligence is not doing something that a reasonably prudent dentist would do under the same or similar circumstances
d.	A, B, and C
e.	A and C

 

 

7.   Dentists should require that patients update their medical history forms:

a.	every 3 months
b.	every 6 months
c.	annually
d.	only at the time of their initial appointment

 

 

8.   The more thorough a dentist is in warning patients about possible risks, the more prepared that dentist should be to prevent or treat those risks.

a.	Both statements are true
b.	Both statements are false
c.	The first statement is true, the second statement is false
d.	The first statement is false, the second statement is true

 

 

9.   Which of the following statements is true of Good Samaritan statutes?

a.	A national standard has been adopted, meaning Good Samaritan standards are uniform for all states
b.	A patient who suffers a medical emergency in a dental office falls under protection of the Good Samaritan statute
c.	A nonpatient of the dentist, who happens to be in the waiting room and requires an emergency response, may fall under protection of the Good Samaritan statute
d.	Good Samaritan statutes are considered obsolete

 

 

10.                Proactive measures for legal protection include:

a.	practicing within the standard of reasonableness
b.	maintaining continuing dental education
c.	documenting office procedures and patient charts
d.	A, B, and C
e.	A and C

 

Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6^th Edition

 

Test Bank

 

Chapter 17: Diabetes Mellitus: Hyperglycemia and Hypoglycemia

 

           MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1.   Diabetes mellitus results from:

a.	a deficiency in insulin secretion
b.	a reduction in the biological effectiveness of insulin
c.	both A and B
d.	neither A nor B

 

 

2.   About __% of the U.S. population has diabetes mellitus.

a.	3
b.	6
c.	20
d.	35

 

 

3.   The incidence of diabetes in the population of the United States has increased __% within the past two decades.

a.	10
b.	25
c.	40
d.	50

 

 

4.   According to statistics, “one _____ of all children who currently have diabetes die of renal disease an average of 25 years after the initial diagnosis.”

a.	tenth
b.	fifth
c.	quarter
d.	half

 

 

 

5.   A study of mortality in diabetic patients reported that the greatest percentage of deaths was related to:

a.	cerebrovascular disorders
b.	cardiovascular causes
c.	diabetic coma
d.	renal failure

 

 

6.   Which of the following major categories of diabetic complications is most likely to lead to diabetic retinopathy?

a.	large blood vessel disease
b.	small blood vessel disease
c.	increased susceptibility to infection
d.	decreased susceptibility to infection

 

 

7.   Chronic oral complications of diabetes mellitus include:

a.	gingivitis
b.	increased incidence of dental caries
c.	periodontal disease
d.	A, B, and C
e.	A and C

 

 

8.   Hypoglycemia is most commonly caused by which of the following in diabetic patients?

a.	excess administration of insulin
b.	dietary indiscretion
c.	infection
d.	all of the above
e.	none of the above

 

 

9.   The classic triad of diabetic symptoms includes polydipsia, polyphagia, and:

a.	polydactyly
b.	polycythemia
c.	polyuria
d.	polymorphism

 

 

10.                Which of the following problems does the following scenario describe?  The patient is hot and dry to the touch and has a florid complexion, increased frequency of urination, increased thirst, and loss of weight with an increased appetite.

a.	hypothyroidism
b.	hyperthyroidism
c.	acute adrenal insufficiency
d.	hypoglycemia
e.	hyperglycemia

 

 

11.                Classically, hypoglycemia presents as:

a.	coma
b.	hyperthermia
c.	asymptomatic—laboratory diagnosis only
d.	tachycardia, cold clammy skin, anxiety, or sleepiness

 

 

12.                A patient who is cold and sweaty, is shaking mildly, and has an apparent degree of mental disorientation exhibits signs of:

a.	hypoglycemia
b.	hypothyroidism
c.	cerebrovascular accident
d.	hyperglycemia
e.	hyperthyroidism

 

 

13.                Immediate management of a patient with type 1 diabetes who loses consciousness is:

a.	BLS, as indicated
b.	oxygen, via positive pressure
c.	administration of “sugar” orally
d.	administration of “sugar” transmucosally
e.	administration of “sugar” intravenously

 

Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6^th Edition

 

Test Bank

 

Chapter 31: Pediatric Considerations

 

           MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1.   Emergencies associated with _____________ occur more often in children than adults.

a.	local anesthetic
b.	chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
c.	CNS-depressant drug administration
d.	A, B, and C
e.	A and C

 

 

2.   According to the author, the most likely scenario for a serious drug-related emergency developing in dentistry is a/an:

a.	older rather than younger child
b.	heavier rather than lighter weight child
c.	child receiving multiple quadrants of dental treatment
d.	child in the office of a pediatric dentist
e.	child in the office of an older dentist

 

 

3.   For purposes of BLS, a child was defined by the American Heart Association for healthcare providers in 2005 as being from _________ .

a.	1 through 6 years old
b.	1 through 7 years old
c.	1 through 12 years old
d.	2 through 12 years
e.	1 year old to the start of puberty

 

 

4.   The primary cause of cardiac arrest in children is:

a.	myocardial infarction
b.	ventricular fibrillation
c.	atrial fibrillation
d.	airway obstruction or respiratory arrest

 

 

 

5.   ________ should be included in an emergency drug kit if opioids are used.

a.	midazolam
b.	diazepam
c.	naloxone
d.	triazolam

 

 

6.   In an infant, pulse is determined by palpation of the:

a.	sixth rib
b.	carotid artery
c.	brachial artery
d.	radial artery
e.	ulnar artery

 

 

7.   Which of the following methods of drug administration can be titrated?

a.	intravenous
b.	intramuscular
c.	oral
d.	A, B, and C
e.	A and C

 

 

8.   During conscious sedation, it is most important to monitor:

a.	blood pressure
b.	pulse
c.	respiratory rate
d.	CNS depression

 

 

9.   The audible alarm on a pulse oximeter for “low” oxygen saturation is typically set at __ %.

a.	50
b.	75
c.	80
d.	90
e.	95

 

 

10.                The recommended rate of rescue breathing for an infant or child victim is one breath every ____ seconds.

a.	3
b.	5
c.	10
d.	20

 

 

11.                In a pediatric situation, a single rescuer should __________ first.

a.	phone
b.	activate EMS
c.	start BLS
d.	obtain the AED

 

 

12.                The 2005 American Heart Association guidelines recommend a chest compression rate of about ___ per minute for the child victim.

a.	60
b.	80
c.	100
d.	150

 

 

13.                A compression ventilation ratio of _____ is recommended for a single rescuer and child victim.

a.	30:2
b.	15:2
c.	5:1
d.	3:1

 

 

14.                Which of the following statements is true concerning use of an AED for children 1 to 8 years of age?

a.	If the rhythm is shockable, deliver one shock, then resume CPR immediately
b.	If the rhythm is shockable, deliver one shock, then resume BLS immediately
c.	If the rhythm is not shockable, resume CPR immediately
d.	If the rhythm is not shockable, wait 2 minutes and than attempt to shock again